" indicates the degree to which a particular product or service meets requirements, while indicates a category or rank used to distinguish that item from other similar items."

" indicates the degree to which a particular product or service meets requirements, while indicates a category or rank used to distinguish that item from other similar items."

A. Quality, grade
B. Grade, standard
C. Grade, quality
D. Quality, standard


Answer: A

Warranty cost is an example of.

Warranty cost is an example of.

A. Appraisal cost
B. Service cost
C. Correction cost
D. Failure cost


Answer: D

Prevention costs include all of the following EXCEPT.

Prevention costs include all of the following EXCEPT.

A. Have team members get professional certifications
B. Collect lessons learnt & best practices of previous projects
C. Conduct peer reviews, group reviews on the products
D. Organize knowledge sharing/workshops for the team



Answer: C

The applications being built by your programming team have lots of bugs. So, you write up coding standards that will guide everyone in building the product with more attention to quality. Which of the following activity precisely describes this?

The applications being built by your programming team have lots of bugs. So, you write up coding standards that will guide everyone in building the product with more attention to quality. Which of the following activity precisely describes this?

A. Inspection
B. Prevention
C. Investigation
D. Implementation


Answer: B

You are managing a project that uses the toughest design pattern. Your technical architect analyzes a problem and she uses an Ishikawa diagram to figure out the root cause of a defect. Which process is being performed?

You are managing a project that uses the toughest design pattern. Your technical architect analyzes a problem and she uses an Ishikawa diagram to figure out the root cause of a defect. Which process is being performed?

A. Control quality
B. Quality analysis
C. Plan quality management
D. Perform quality assurance


Answer: A

Which of the following is NOT an example of COQ?

Which of the following is NOT an example of COQ?

A. Spend more time in studying coding standards and design pattern
B. Request TQA to inspect the design pattern
C. Load more programmers to secure the release date
D. Mobilize additional resources to repair defective products



Answer: C

What is NOT another name of Inspections?

What is NOT another name of Inspections?

A. Audit
B. Gothrough
C. Peer Review
D. Walkthrough


Answer: B

Quality Assurance should be performed.

Quality Assurance should be performed.

A. During the creation of the project proposal
B. During the project design phase
C. During the project testing phase
D. Throughout the project lifecycle


Answer: D

Which of the following is considered as a cost of prevention?

Which of the following is considered as a cost of prevention?

A. Testing efforts
B. Rework efforts
C. Inspection efforts
D. Efforts for collecting historical data


Answer: D

Based on the company's PCB (Process Capability Baseline), the upper and lower limits of CSS metric is 80-85-90. What is it known as?

Based on the company's PCB (Process Capability Baseline), the upper and lower limits of CSS metric is 80-85-90. What is it known as?

A. Process limits
B. Norm limits
C. Specification limits
D. Control limits


Answer: D

What is CORRECT about the upper and lower specification limits?

What is CORRECT about the upper and lower specification limits?

A. They are based on requirements of agreement
B. They are based on standard statistical calculation
C. They are the same as the control limits
D. They are always set inside the upper and lower control limits


Answer: A

What statement is TRUE?

What statement is TRUE?

A. Control limits are not different from specification limits
B. Control limits are different from specification limits
C. Control limits are higher than specification limits
D. Control limits are lower than specification limits


Answer: B

What is CORRECT about ISO 9000?

What is CORRECT about ISO 9000?

A. ISO 9000 is an organizational project management maturity model
B. ISO 9000 is an international standard for project management
C. ISO 9000 certification ensures that your company produces quality products
D. ISO 9000 is an international standard for quality management systems


Answer: D

Which of the following is considered a cost of prevention?

Which of the following is considered a cost of prevention?

A. Re-work costs
B. Training costs
C. Testing costs
D. Costs of design reviews


Answer: B

Which of the following is not included in the Human Resource Management Plan?

Which of the following is not included in the Human Resource Management Plan?

A. Staffing management plan
B. Project organization charts
C. Role and responsibilities
D. Communication methods


Answer: D

Management has asked you to create a RACI chart to help with staff assignments. What does RACI mean?

Management has asked you to create a RACI chart to help with staff assignments. What does RACI mean?

A. Risk, Action, Check, Inform
B. Risk, Accountable, Control, Initiate
C. Responsible, Accountable, Consult, Inform
D. Responsible, Accountable, Communicate, Initiate


Answer: C

Which of the following types of power is the most effective in leading teams?

Which of the following types of power is the most effective in leading teams?

A. Expert
B. Referent
C. Reward
D. Punishment


Answer: A

Which process group does the Manage Project Team process belong to?

Which process group does the Manage Project Team process belong to?

A. Closing
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling


Answer: C

Due to the complexity of the project, you need to hire a UI design expert from another company. This is an example of.

Due to the complexity of the project, you need to hire a UI design expert from another company. This is an example of.

A. Pre-assignment
B. Negotiation
C. Acquisition
D. Staff assignment


Answer: C

Which of the following technologies does not help facilitate communication in a virtual team?

Which of the following technologies does not help facilitate communication in a virtual team?

A. Face to face meeting
B. Audio conferencing
C. Web-based meeting
D. Video conferencing


Answer: A

You are forming a virtual project team that includes members from 4 different countries around the world. What is the problem you probably face to build an effective team?

You are forming a virtual project team that includes members from 4 different countries around the world. What is the problem you probably face to build an effective team?

A. Feeling of isolation
B. Communication issues
C. Cultural differences
D. All of the answers


Answer: D

You are developing some criteria to promote desired behaviours of your team members and offer incentives based on their performance. Which part of the staffing management plan will you document this?

You are developing some criteria to promote desired behaviours of your team members and offer incentives based on their performance. Which part of the staffing management plan will you document this?

A. Resource histogram
B. Training needs
C. Safety procedures
D. Recognition and rewards


Answer: D

In the design phase, the project manager requires all team members to sit together in one dedicated room in order to increase their communication and help build a sense of community. This is an example of.

In the design phase, the project manager requires all team members to sit together in one dedicated room in order to increase their communication and help build a sense of community. This is an example of.

A. War room
B. Virtual team
C. Socially active team
D. Common area


Answer: A

Which of the following does NOT help motivate an individual?

Which of the following does NOT help motivate an individual?

A. Achievement and growth
B. Job satisfaction
C. Micro-management
D. Challenging work


Answer: C

A project team with members located in India, the US, and the UK would be called a.

A project team with members located in India, the US, and the UK would be called a.

A. Virtual team
B. Scattered team
C. Universal team
D. Global team


Answer: A

The team begins to work together and adjust their work habits and behaviours. Which phase of development is the team in?

The team begins to work together and adjust their work habits and behaviours. Which phase of development is the team in?

A. Performing
B. Storming
C. Forming
D. Norming


Answer: D

Skills such as empathy, influence, creativity, and group facilitation are valuable assets when managing the project team. These skills are often referred to as.

Skills such as empathy, influence, creativity, and group facilitation are valuable assets when managing the project team. These skills are often referred to as.

A. Hard skills
B. Soft skills
C. Ad hoc skills
D. Feedback skills


Answer: B

The project manager would like to resolve conflicts with a give-and-take attitude rather than using a one-sided approach. What is the best approach for the PM?

The project manager would like to resolve conflicts with a give-and-take attitude rather than using a one-sided approach. What is the best approach for the PM?

A. Forcing
B. Problem-solving
C. Directing
D. Withdrawing


Answer: B

What is the conflict resolution technique used when the project manager says, "I cannot deal with the issue now!"?

What is the conflict resolution technique used when the project manager says, "I cannot deal with the issue now!"?

A. Forcing
B. Withdrawal
C. Problem solving
D. Compromising



Answer: B

The most common sources of conflict in a project include scare resources, scheduling priorities, and.

The most common sources of conflict in a project include scare resources, scheduling priorities, and.

A. Personal work styles
B. Cost priorities
C. Management
D. Requirements


Answer: A

"Tight matrix" and " War room" are referred to as?

"Tight matrix" and " War room" are referred to as?

A. Ground Rules
B. Pre-assignment
C. Collocation
D. Halo effect


Answer: C

Ground rules are established to set clear expectations regarding acceptable behaviour by the project team members. Who will be responsible to enforce the rule?

Ground rules are established to set clear expectations regarding acceptable behaviour by the project team members. Who will be responsible to enforce the rule?

A. The HR team
B. The project manager
C. The project team members
D. The senior manager



Answer: C

Which process is responsible for controlling and recording on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?

Which process is responsible for controlling and recording on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?

A. Service level management
B. Change management
C. Incident management
D. Configuration management


Answer: D

Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernible tendency?

Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernible tendency?

A. Service level management
B. Problem management
C. Change management
D. Event management


Answer: B

A process owner has been identified with an "I" in the RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A process owner has been identified with an "I" in the RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up to date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity


Answer: C

Who is responsible for defining the process for service?

Who is responsible for defining the process for service?

A. Service Manager
B. Service QA
C. Service Owner
D. Both A & B are correct


Answer: D

Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?

Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?

A. A capacity database
B. A definitive media library
C. A request for change
D. A known error database


Answer: D

What are the categories of events described in the Process_Event Management for AMS?

What are the categories of events described in the Process_Event Management for AMS?

A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, routine, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive


Answer: C

What is not a change type?

What is not a change type?

A. Normal change
B. Emergency change
C. Standard change
D. Big change


Answer: D

Who is responsible for the Service manager assignment?

Who is responsible for the Service manager assignment?

A. Account Manager
B. OM/BUL
C. Service Owner
D. QA Manager


Answer: B

What are sub-processes of the Access Management Process?

What are sub-processes of the Access Management Process?

A. Access management planning
B. User access request processing
C. Access administration
D. All of the answers


Answer: D

FSOFT provides Call center service for customer, service time is 8:00 AM to 5:00 PM. In SLA, Response time is 1 hour and Resolution time is 4 hours. A user sends email to report an incident at 16:30 on Monday. On Tuesday morning, a Call center staff replies to the customer at 8:15 AM and resolves the incident at 12:00 PM. SLA of ticket is met or failed?

FSOFT provides Call center service for customer, service time is 8:00 AM to 5:00 PM. In SLA, Response time is 1 hour and Resolution time is 4 hours. A user sends email to report an incident at 16:30 on Monday. On Tuesday morning, a Call center staff replies to the customer at 8:15 AM and resolves the incident at 12:00 PM. SLA of ticket is met or failed?

A. Both Response Time and Resolution Time are failed targets in SLA
B. Both Response Time and Resolution Time are met targets in SLA
C. Response Time failed and Resolution Time is met targets in SLA
D. Response Time is met and Resolution Time failed targets in SLA


Answer: D

Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?

Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?

A. To ensure overall business risk is optimized
B. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated
C. To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users


Answer: D

Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfilment?

Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfilment?

A. To provide information to users and customers
B. To update the service catalogue with service that may be requested through the service desk
C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D. To assist with general information, complaints or comments


Answer: B

What process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

What process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

A. Service level management
B. Problem management
C. Change management
D. Event management


Answer: B

What is the first step when an incident is detected?

What is the first step when an incident is detected?

A. Record the incident data
B. Determine the priority
C. Diagnosis
D. Assign to a supporter


Answer: A

Which of the following tasks is part of proactive Problem Management?

Which of the following tasks is part of proactive Problem Management?

A. Making a change to resolve a problem
B. Registering frequently occurring errors
C. Analyzing historical incident data
D. Managing Known Errors


Answer: C

When is it determined if a Problem can be associated with a Known Error?

When is it determined if a Problem can be associated with a Known Error?

A. Root Cause and CI is known
B. There is a possibility of a recurrence
C. Both A&B are correct
D. Both A&B are not correct


Answer: C

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?

A. A user calls the Service Desk to ask how to work with a new application?
B. A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of an application
C. A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application
D. A user wants to download a licensed copy of the software from a list of approved options


Answer: B

FSOFT signs a contract with ABC company to support users and maintain an ERP system. When the CFO (Chief Finance Officer) of this company requires to change some functions in the Accounting module, what is the BEST solution for FSOFT's service team?

FSOFT signs a contract with ABC company to support users and maintain an ERP system. When the CFO (Chief Finance Officer) of this company requires to change some functions in the Accounting module, what is the BEST solution for FSOFT's service team?

A. Implement the required change as soon as possible because the CFO will approve the payment for FSOFT
B. Raise an RFC (request for change), assess and analyze risks and impacts, then require official approval from authorized people before implementing the change
C. Require ECAB (Emergency change advisory board) to approve immediately
D. Request fulfilment process to handle this request


Answer: B

When does an incident occur?

When does an incident occur?

A. A user is unable to access a service during service hours
B. An authorized IT staff member is unable to access a service during service hours
C. A network segment fails and the user is not aware of any disruption to service
D. All of the answers


Answer: D

Which group should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

Which group should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

A. Board of management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. The emergency change control board
D. Urgent change authority


Answer: B

Which process is responsible for low risk, frequent occurring and low-cost changes?

Which process is responsible for low risk, frequent occurring and low-cost changes?

A. Change management
B. Problem management
C. Release and deployment management
D. Request fulfillment


Answer: D

Which one of the following do major incidents require?

Which one of the following do major incidents require?

A. Separate procedure
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation


Answer: A

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?

Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?

A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a
user via a self - help web based interface
D. Any request for change that is low risk and which can be approved by the change manager without a change advisory board meeting


Answer: A

Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?

Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?

A. To automatically detect incidents occurred in the applications and infrastructures of the customer
B. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
C. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
D. Both B & C are correct


Answer: D

Event management, Problem management, Access management and Request fulfilment are parts of which stage of the service lifecycle?

Event management, Problem management, Access management and Request fulfilment are parts of which stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Service strategy
B. Service transition
C. Service operation
D. Continual service improvement


Answer: C

Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

A. Service Level Agreement
B. A request for change (RFC)
C. The service catalogue
D. An incident record


Answer: A

What is a RACI used for?

What is a RACI used for?

A. Performance analysis
B. Recording configuration items
C. Monitoring services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities


Answer: D

Which of the following BEST describes an Incident?

Which of the following BEST describes an Incident?

A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not


Answer: B

Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?

Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?

A. The incident impacts many users
B. The same incident occurs many times
C. Both A & B are correct
D. Both A & B are not correct


Answer: C

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?

A. To prevent problems and resulting incidents from happening
B. To eliminate recurring incidents.
C. To restore service to a user
D. To minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented


Answer: C

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
B. To grant authorized users the right to use a service of the application under maintenance, while preventing non-authorized users from accessing
C. To prevent problems and resulting incidents from happening
D. To detect security events and make sense of them


Answer: B

Which process ensures that : - Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes - All changes to service assets and configuration items are recorded in the Configuration Management System - Overall business risk is optimized?

Which process ensures that :
- Standardized methods and procedures are used for efficient and prompt handling of all changes
- All changes to service assets and configuration items are recorded in the Configuration Management System
- Overall business risk is optimized?

A. Change management
B. Configuration management
C. Service Level Management
D. Problem Management.


Answer: A

Which process is to plan, manage and review suppliers, and to monitor the agreed service levels?

Which process is to plan, manage and review suppliers, and to monitor the agreed service levels?

A. Change management
B. Service management
C. Supplier management
D. Problem Management


Answer: C

What is the responsibility of the Project QA in a Scrum project?

What is the responsibility of the Project QA in a Scrum project?

A. To define and recommend process improvement
B. To verify process compliance with the project's defined processes
C. To provide training about the process if necessary
D. All of the answers"



Answer: D

In a Scrum team, who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the Scrum practices?

In a Scrum team, who is responsible for ensuring compliance with the Scrum practices?

A. Development Team
B. Product Owner
C. Scrum Master
D. Project QA


Answer: C

How long should the daily meeting last with a Development Team of 9 members?

How long should the daily meeting last with a Development Team of 9 members?

A. 15 minutes
B. 20 minutes
C. 25 minutes
D. 30 minutes


Answer: A

What is a key feature of Self-organizing teams?

What is a key feature of Self-organizing teams?

A. They organize and manage their work by themselves
B. They are independent organizations
C. They decide definition of done by themselves
D. They possess all required skills to create the products



Answer: A

After 3 sprints, Team X (7 members) achieved 75 points, Team Y (5 members) achieved 105 points. Which team is more productive?

After 3 sprints, Team X (7 members) achieved 75 points, Team Y (5 members) achieved 105 points. Which team is more productive?

A. Team X is less productive than Team Y
B. It's impossible to compare the two teams
C. Team X is more productive than Team Y
D. Team X is as productive as Team Y


Answer: B

Which technique is used for estimation where team members use playing cards to estimate story points?

Which technique is used for estimation where team members use playing cards to estimate story points?

A. Planning cards
B. Story cards
C. Planning Poker
D. Planning points


Answer: C

Which statement is TRUE about Definition of Done (DoD)?

Which statement is TRUE about Definition of Done (DoD)?

A. DoD is defined by Product Owner only
B. DoD is defined by Development Team only
C. DoD is to assess the performance of team
D. DoD must be shared with the whole Scrum Team


Answer: D

Which of the followings is the best sample of Definition of Done (DoD)?

Which of the followings is the best sample of Definition of Done (DoD)?

A. Code built, Unit tests written, Integration test run
B. All defined tasks are complete
C. Code complete, Test complete & passing, agreement from Product Owner
D. Functions work well as required


Answer: C

Who has the authority to cancel the Sprint?

Who has the authority to cancel the Sprint?

A. Scrum Master
B. Development Team
C. Product Owner
D. Senior Manager


Answer: C

What should be the reasons for Sprint cancellation?

What should be the reasons for Sprint cancellation?

A. The Sprint goal is outdated
B. The organization changes business direction
C. The technology changes
D. All of the answers


Answer: D

What is the purpose of Product Backlog Refinement?

What is the purpose of Product Backlog Refinement?

A. To archive the Product Backlog
B. To revise the Product Backlog
C. To validate the Product Backlog
D. To make up the Product Backlog


Answer: B

What should not be done in a Daily Meeting?

What should not be done in a Daily Meeting?

A. Problem solving
B. Report what you've done yesterday
C. Report what you will do today
D. Share what troubles you're facing


Answer: A

What role is "Cross-functional" referred to?

What role is "Cross-functional" referred to?

A. Product Owner
B. Scrum Master
C. Project Sponsor
D. Development Team


Answer: D

Who is required to attend the Sprint Planning Meeting Part 1?

Who is required to attend the Sprint Planning Meeting Part 1?

A. Product Owner
B. Scrum Master
C. Senior Manager
D. Product Manager


Answer: A

Which of the following user stories is BEST written?

Which of the following user stories is BEST written?

A. As a sales assistant, I want to automatically generate the invoices raised during the day, so that time is saved.
B. As a sales assistant, I want to save time so that I automatically generate the invoices raised during the day
C. As needed, I want to automatically generate the invoices raised during the day, so that time is saved
D. As needed, I want to save time so that I automatically generate the invoices raised during the day


Answer: A

Which of the following is TRUE about specific KPIs for the Scrum project?

Which of the following is TRUE about specific KPIs for the Scrum project?

A. They can be built based on customer's requirements
B. Productivity is a mandatory metric for the
Scrum project
C. They can be revised, but only before each phase
D. All of the answers


Answer: D

What is CORRECT about the sprint artefacts such as user stories and task lists?

What is CORRECT about the sprint artefacts such as user stories and task lists?

A. They must be managed in FI2.0 for all projects
B. They can be managed in other tools, but must be documented in PP and baselined at the end of each sprint
C. They can be managed in whatever tools and does not need to document in PP
D. They can be managed in whatever tools but must be imported into FI2.0


Answer: B

Where do you record the Baseline report for the Scrum project?

Where do you record the Baseline report for the Scrum project?

A. Daily Report
B. Weekly Report
C. Baseline Report
D. Sprint Report



Answer: D

What should you do if you have some changes related to WoW (way of work) after a retrospective meeting?

What should you do if you have some changes related to WoW (way of work) after a retrospective meeting?

A. Update PP and get approval from Senior manager
B. Update PP and get approval from QA manager
C. Update PP and inform the Scrum team, project A and Senior manager
D. Update PP and get approval from Scrum Master


Answer: C

What should be done for the user story that was rejected by the Product Owner?

What should be done for the user story that was rejected by the Product Owner?

A. Move it back onto the product backlog
B. Continue working on it in next sprint
C. Try to convince Product Owner to accept it
D. Remove it from the product backlog


Answer: A

How many types of process compliance checklists for the Scrum project are there on Fsoft QMS?

How many types of process compliance checklists for the Scrum project are there on Fsoft QMS?

A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four


Answer: B

What is the value of Requirement Completeness for the following project?

What is the value of Requirement Completeness for the following project?

- Sprint 1: passed the accepted definition
- Sprint 2: passed the accepted definition
- Sprint 3: did not pass the accepted definition
- Sprint 4: passed the accepted definition
- Sprint 5: did not pass the accepted definition


A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 80%
D. 100%


Answer: B

What is a standard metric for Scrum projects?

What is a standard metric for Scrum projects?

A. Productivity
B. Delivery Timeliness
C. Effort Effectiveness
D. Requirement Completeness



Answer: D

Which user story is NOT mandatory to have in the Opening Sprint Backlog?

Which user story is NOT mandatory to have in the Opening Sprint Backlog?

A. As a Scrum team, we want to have a WoW (way of work)
B. As a Scrum team, we want to know product vision
C. As a Scrum team, we want to implement an initial framework
D. As a user, I want to log into the app, so that I
can control the machine


Answer: D

Which statement is CORRECT about the Product Backlog?

Which statement is CORRECT about the Product Backlog?

A. Higher ordered items are more difficult than lower ordered ones
B. Higher ordered items are less difficult than lower ordered ones
C. Higher ordered items are more detailed than lower ordered ones
D. Higher ordered items are less detailed than lower ordered ones



Answer: C

At the end of the sprint, the Product Owner only accepted 4 user stories and rejected 1 user story due to low quality. How many user stories should be counted to calculate the productivity of sprint?

At the end of the sprint, the Product Owner only accepted 4 user stories and rejected 1 user story due to low quality. How many user stories should be counted to calculate the productivity of sprint?

A. 1 user stories
B. 3 user stories
C. 4 user stories
D. 5 user stories


Answer: C

What is a collection of related user stories referred to?

What is a collection of related user stories referred to?

A. Epic
B. Theme
C. Version
D. Backlog

Answer: B

What are large user stories that typically are too big to implement in a single sprint referred to?

What are large user stories that typically are too big to implement in a single sprint referred to?

A. Epics
B. Themes
C. Versions
D. Backlogs


Answer: A

What does "Negotiable" attribute of the INVEST technique imply?

What does "Negotiable" attribute of the INVEST technique imply?

A. User Stories should be as independent as possible
B. User Stories should be features, not tasks
C. User Stories need to be detailed features
D. User Stories should be reminders of features"


Answer: D

What is NOT an attribute of the INVEST technique?

What is NOT an attribute of the INVEST technique?

A. Negotiable
B. Valuable
C. Sizable
D. Testable"


Answer: C

The Scrum team can use the INVEST technique to write user stories. What does "E" stand for?

The Scrum team can use the INVEST technique to write user stories. What does "E" stand for?

A. Estimable
B. Evaluable
C. Enumerable
D. Employable


Answer: A

Which of the following refers to the amount of work done during a sprint?

Which of the following refers to the amount of work done during a sprint?

A. Productivity
B. Velocity
C. Turnover
D. Capability"


Answer: B

Which CIs are mandatory to be baselined at the end of each Sprint?

Which CIs are mandatory to be baselined at the end of each Sprint?

A. Source code
B. Sprint Bugs
C. Sprint Retrospective
D. All of the answers"


Answer: D

In Fsoft, a reason for identifying risk categories is to.

In Fsoft, a reason for identifying risk categories is to.

A. Help in the future consolidation of the activities in the risk mitigation plans
B. Help in the future consolidation of the activities in the task management plans
C. Help in the future consolidation of the bugs in the risk mitigation plans
D. Help in the future consolidation of the members in the risk mitigation plans


Answer: A

In Fsoft, Risk Sources are.

In Fsoft, Risk Sources are.

A. Fundamental drivers that cause bugs within a project or organization
B. Fundamental drivers that cause tasks within a project or organization
C. Fundamental drivers that cause errors within a project or organization
D. Fundamental drivers that cause risks within a project or organization


Answer: D

What does the Fsoft Risk Factor Chart contain?

What does the Fsoft Risk Factor Chart contain?

A. TOP commonly occurring tasks at software projects executed at Fsoft
B. TOP commonly occurring defects at software projects executed at Fsoft
C. TOP commonly occurring risks at software projects executed at Fsoft
D. TOP commonly occurring errors at software projects executed at Fsoft


Answer: C

In Fsoft projects, how could you log a risk into FI 2.0 (Jira)?

In Fsoft projects, how could you log a risk into FI 2.0 (Jira)?

A. Create New Issue, choose Issue Type = Issue
B. Create New Issue, choose Issue Type = Defect
C. Create New Issue, choose Issue Type = Task
D. Create New Issue, choose Issue Type = Risk


Answer: D

In Fsoft projects, the exposure/ priority of risk could be based on __________________.

In Fsoft projects, the exposure/ priority of risk could be based on __________________.

A. Impact & Severity
B. Serious & Urgent
C. Impact & Probability
D. Fatal & Important


Answer: C

In Fsoft projects, the risks will be prioritized as.

In Fsoft projects, the risks will be prioritized as.

A. Blocker > Critical > Major > Minor > Trivial
B. Fatal > Serious > Medium > Cosmetic
C. High > Medium > Low
D. Long > Medium > Short


Answer: A

In Fsoft projects, the PM should monitor the risks already assessed in the Identified Risk List periodically on.

In Fsoft projects, the PM should monitor the risks already assessed in the Identified Risk List periodically on.

A. Weekly basis only
B. Event-driven only
C. Weekly basic or event-driven
D. Milestone only


Answer: C

Which of the following option is Impact classification of risk in Fsoft?

Which of the following option is Impact classification of risk in Fsoft?

A. Cosmetic, Medium, Serious
B. Short, Medium, Long
C. Low, Average, Critical
D. Low, Medium, High


Answer: D

Which of the following option is Probability classification of risk in Fsoft?

Which of the following option is Probability classification of risk in Fsoft?

A. Cosmetic, Medium, Serious
B. Low, Medium, High
C. Short, Medium, Long
D. Low, Average, Critical


Answer: B

What is the risk definition in a Fsoft project?

What is the risk definition in a Fsoft project?

A. Events or conditions may occur, and if it does take place, has a harmful or negative effect on a project
B. Events or conditions may occur, and if it does take place, has a positive/ good effect on a project
C. Events or conditions did occur & had a harmful or negative effect on a project
D. Events or conditions did occur & had a positive/ good effect on a project


Answer: A

How could you evaluate the effectiveness of the implemented solutions after CAR?

How could you evaluate the effectiveness of the implemented solutions after CAR?

A. Using statistical techniques, comparing the pre and post causal analysis data
B. Based on feelings of PM & project team after implementing
C. Based on feelings of QA & SM when tracking project
D. Using some tools, comparing some KPIs at the same time


Answer: A

Which of the following analysis technique is being used in the Fsoft CAR report template to identify the root cause of the problem?

Which of the following analysis technique is being used in the Fsoft CAR report template to identify the root cause of the problem?

A. Decomposition
B. Fishbone
C. Parameter
D. Prototypes


Answer: B

Categories in which the root causes need to be categorized as per the CAR Report Template are.

Categories in which the root causes need to be categorized as per the CAR Report Template are.

A. People, Material, Environment, Method, Machine
B. People, Memory, Engineer, Method, Machine
C. Pen, Material, Environment, Melody, Machine
D. Paper, Material, Environment, Machine, Book


Answer: A

SEPG shall receive the submitted CAR report to.

SEPG shall receive the submitted CAR report to.

A. Collect into organization CAR database and evaluate whether a CAR case can be an IP or not.
B. Collect list of members who are responsible for the issues in projects
C. Collect list of projects for penalty decisions
D. Collect into organization tailoring & deviation database


Answer: A

In a project, who is the Approver of the CAR report?

In a project, who is the Approver of the CAR report?

A. Senior Manager of the project
B. Project Manager of the project
C. QA of the project
D. Tester of the project


Answer: A

What does CAR stand for?

What does CAR stand for?

A. Causal Analysis & Review
B. Common Analysis & Review
C. Common Analysis and Resolution
D. Causal Analysis and Resolution


Answer: D

Using the 5 WHY technique for causal analysis, when will you stop asking Why?

Using the 5 WHY technique for causal analysis, when will you stop asking Why?

A. When the last Why question can find out who is responsible for the issue.
B. When the last Why question is the 5th question.
C. When the last Why question can give proper root causes, or possible corrective and preventive actions.
D. One hour after conducting CAR meeting


Answer: C

In a project, the 5-WHY Causal Analysis Report is mandatory for ___________________.

In a project, the 5-WHY Causal Analysis Report is mandatory for ___________________.

A. Customer Complaint raised to PM upward
B. Customer Complaint raised to BU Leader upward
C. Customer Complaint raised to project QA
D. Customer Complaint raised to Tester


Answer: B

In a project, when will the 5-WHY technique be mandatory for causal analysis?

In a project, when will the 5-WHY technique be mandatory for causal analysis?

A. Cosmetic defects found on work products
B. Medium defects found on work products
C. Serious defects found on work products
D. Fatal defects found on work products


Answer: D

In a project, who is the Owner of CAR?

In a project, who is the Owner of CAR?

A. Project QA
B. Project Manager
C. Senior Manager
D. Team Leader"


Answer: B

What is the purpose of CAR?

What is the purpose of CAR?

A. To find out who is responsible for the issue
B. To identify where the problems happen
C. To identify and analyze the causes of problems and to take specific actions to remove the causes and prevent the occurrence of problems in the future
D. To satisfy QA's requirements"


Answer: C

Where are the project assets archived at project closure?

Where are the project assets archived at project closure?

A. Start-up Baseline
B. Wrap-up Baseline
C. Back-up Baseline
D. Archive Baseline


Answer: B

What question should be answered to identify the practices of the project?

What question should be answered to identify the practices of the project?

A. What went right
B. What went wrong
C. What were obstacles
D. What were problems"


Answer: A

Which of the following is mandatory to use the 5- WHY technique for analysis?

Which of the following is mandatory to use the 5- WHY technique for analysis?

A. The project has customer complaint raised to the project team
B. The project has CSS < 80 point
C. The project has serious defects
D. QPPO actual value is 50% worse than target"


Answer: D

Which of the following is NOT mandatory to capture practices/lessons?

Which of the following is NOT mandatory to capture practices/lessons?

A. Customer complaint
B. CSS < 60 point
C. Serious defects
D. Out of specification limit project QPPO"


Answer: C

What is CORRECT about the rule for late project closure?

What is CORRECT about the rule for late project closure?

A. The project is not closed after 1 month from planned end date, WARNING will be raised
B. The project is not closed after 2 months from planned end date, WARNING will be raised
C. The project is not closed after 1 month from planned end date, PENALTY will be raised
D. The project is not closed after 1.5 months from planned end date, PENALTY will be raised"


Answer: A

What is SLA of QA Accounting to send the results of data verification?

What is SLA of QA Accounting to send the results of data verification?

A. 3 working days
B. 4 working days
C. 5 working days
D. 7 working days


Answer: C

When is Acceptance Note considered on-time?

When is Acceptance Note considered on-time?

A. If it's approved and signed off within 15 working days from Post-Mortem meeting date
B. If it's approved and signed off within 10 working days from Post-Mortem meeting date
C. If it's approved and signed off within 15 working days from project planned end date
D. If it's approved and signed off within 10 working days from project planned end date"


Answer: A

All of the following criteria must be satisfied before the project is closed EXCEPT:

All of the following criteria must be satisfied before the project is closed EXCEPT:

A. Acceptance Note is signed off
B. Project Asset is accepted by FSU QA Acc
C. Call-log of FSU QA Acc is accepted
D. Project is closed in FI2.0"


Answer: D

How is the project point impacted if the project does not get the CSS?

How is the project point impacted if the project does not get the CSS?

A. Minus 3 points
B. Minus 4 points
C. Minus 5 points
D. No impact


Answer: B

How is a Post-Mortem meeting considered on- time?

How is a Post-Mortem meeting considered on- time?

A. If it's conducted before or equal to project actual end date
B. If it's conducted before or equal to project planned end date
C. If it's conducted within 15 working days from project planned end date
D. If it's conducted within 10 working days from project planned end date"



Answer: B

When is a Post-Mortem meeting NOT required to be conducted?

When is a Post-Mortem meeting NOT required to be conducted?

A. The project is cancelled
B. The project failed
C. The project has no CSS D. None of the answer"


Answer: D