Case / Care management is __________ to a PTA?
Answer:a resource
Case / Care management is __________ to a PTA?
Answer:a resource
Answer:a resource
To aid in your productivity as a PTA, ensure patient understanding of the importance of ______________.
To aid in your productivity as a PTA, ensure patient understanding of the importance of ______________.
Answer: Compliance
Systems develop rules for conflict that are followed, even if they work poorly.
Systems develop rules for conflict that are followed, even if they work poorly.
Answer: True.
True or False: Healthy systems are characterized by "morphogenesis".
True or False:
Healthy systems are characterized by "morphogenesis".
Answer: True.
True or False: Most labels keep people from changing.
True or False:
Most labels keep people from changing.
Answer: True.
True or False: Conflicts are often managed productively by attention to blame or causality.
True or False:
Conflicts are often managed productively by attention to blame or causality.
Answer: False.
True or False: Most of us are inaccurate when describing our own behavior in conflict.
True or False:
Most of us are inaccurate when describing our own behavior in conflict.
Answer: True.
People form coalitions in order to:
People form coalitions in order to:
Answer: Share topic information, get support and understanding, have a sense of belonging, and gain power.
Conflict triangles can be:
Conflict triangles can be:
Answer: Stable, unstable, or toxic.
Which of the couple types use small amounts of attacking or blaming behavior, retaining their intimacy in other ways?
Which of the couple types use small amounts of attacking or blaming behavior, retaining their intimacy in other ways?
Answer: Type IV: Intimate-nonaggressive
Which of the couple types lack vitality, intimacy, and escalation?
Which of the couple types lack vitality, intimacy, and escalation?
Answer: Type II: Non Intimate-non-aggressive
Which of the couple types foster escalation without any corresponding intimacy?
Which of the couple types foster escalation without any corresponding intimacy?
Answer: Type 1: Non Intimate-aggressive
A repetitive loop of observable communication with a redundant outcome is called:
A repetitive loop of observable communication with a redundant outcome is called:
Answer: A microevent
When analyzing coalitions in a conflict, the member who is "out" is called:
When analyzing coalitions in a conflict, the member who is "out" is called:
Answer: The isolate
Bossidy and Charan believe that to excel at execution, a leader should
Bossidy and Charan believe that to excel at execution, a leader should
A. be hands-off once the strategy is set.
B. micromanage the tactics.
C. empower employees to take over the execution.
D. probe for weaknesses in the substance and details.
E. let the plan run its course before attempting to revise it.
Answer: D
Which of the following is not a behavior of a leader who executes?
Which of the following is not a behavior of a leader who executes?
A. Reward the doers.
B. Insist on realism.
C. Follow through.
D. Know yourself.
E. Respect others' limitations.
Answer: E
Which of the following is not a question that Bossidy and Charan believe a strong strategic plan must address?
Which of the following is not a question that Bossidy and Charan believe a strong strategic plan must address?
A. How will deviations from the plan be handled?
B. What is the assessment of the external environment?
C. What are the critical issues facing the business?
D. Can the business execute the strategy?
E. Are the short term and long term balanced?
Answer: A
According to Bossidy and Charan, which business process is most important for effective execution?
According to Bossidy and Charan, which business process is most important for effective execution?
A. Strategy
B. People
C. Alignment
D. Operations
E. Research
Answer: B
According to Bossidy and Charan, effective ______ requires managers to build a foundation for it within three core process: people, strategy, and operations.
According to Bossidy and Charan, effective ______ requires managers to build a foundation for it within three core process: people, strategy, and operations.
A. tactical planning
B. strategy
C. follow-through
D. execution
E. controlling
Answer: D
A recent survey found that the top concern among CEOs worldwide is
A recent survey found that the top concern among CEOs worldwide is
A. profit growth.
B. customer loyalty.
C. excellence in execution.
D. stimulating innovation.
E. finding qualified employees.
Answer: C
Apple's iPad has a very high percentage of the market for tablet computers, and this is also a quickly growing market. Thus, using the BCG matrix, the iPad would be classified as a
Apple's iPad has a very high percentage of the market for tablet computers, and this is also a quickly growing market. Thus, using the BCG matrix, the iPad would be classified as a
A. star.
B. cloud.
C. question mark.
D. cash cow.
E. dog.
Answer: A
Daniel is assessing his company's portfolio of products. One of them is the best-selling brand of mayonnaise, although this is now a slow-growing market. If Daniel uses the BCG matrix, he would classify this product as a
Daniel is assessing his company's portfolio of products. One of them is the best-selling brand of mayonnaise, although this is now a slow-growing market. If Daniel uses the BCG matrix, he would classify this product as a
A. star.
B. cloud.
C. question mark.
D. cash cow.
E. dog.
Answer: D
Which of the following strategy tools suggests that an organization will do better in fast-growing markets in which it has a high market share rather than in slow-growing markets in which it has a low market share?
Which of the following strategy tools suggests that an organization will do better in fast-growing markets in which it has a high market share rather than in slow-growing markets in which it has a low market share?
A. SWOT analysis
B. Porter's model for industry analysis
C. Porter's competitive strategies
D. The BCG matrix
E. Trend analysis
Answer: D
________ refers to the idea that the economic value of separate, related businesses under one ownership and management is greater together than the businesses are worth separately.
________ refers to the idea that the economic value of separate, related businesses under one ownership and management is greater together than the businesses are worth separately.
A. Structural benefit
B. Synergy
C. Selective function
D. Alignment
E. Consolidation
Answer: B
Which of the following is most likely to use a diversification strategy?
Which of the following is most likely to use a diversification strategy?
A. A tax preparation business
B. A flower shop
C. A lawn service
D. A grocery store
E. A shoe store
Answer: D
Time Warner runs different divisions specializing in television, music, and publishing. Time Warner is using a(n) ______ strategy.
Time Warner runs different divisions specializing in television, music, and publishing. Time Warner is using a(n) ______ strategy.
A. stability
B. defensive
C. diversification
D. differentiation
E. infiltration
Answer: C
The benefit of the single-product strategy for a company is
The benefit of the single-product strategy for a company is
A. synergy.
B. focus.
C. isolated systems.
D. differentiation.
E. lower costs.
Answer: B
Which of the following carmakers pursues a focused-differentiation strategy?
Which of the following carmakers pursues a focused-differentiation strategy?
A. Ferrari
B. Ford
C. Volkswagen
D. Honda
E. Kia
Answer: A
An organization that offers unique, superior products or services to a narrow market is pursuing a strategy of
An organization that offers unique, superior products or services to a narrow market is pursuing a strategy of
A. cost leadership.
B. differentiation.
C. cost focus.
D. diversification.
E. focused differentiation.
Answer: E
An organization that keeps costs and prices low in targeting a narrow market is pursuing a strategy of
An organization that keeps costs and prices low in targeting a narrow market is pursuing a strategy of
A. cost leadership.
B. differentiation.
C. cost focus.
D. stability.
E. focused differentiation.
Answer: C
Timex Group USA makes inexpensive but reliable watches sold throughout the United States and is an example of an organization pursuing a _________ strategy.
Timex Group USA makes inexpensive but reliable watches sold throughout the United States and is an example of an organization pursuing a _________ strategy.
A. cost-leadership
B. differentiation
C. cost-focus
D. focused-differentiation
E. retrenchment
Answer: A
An example of a firm that pursues a differentiation strategy is
An example of a firm that pursues a differentiation strategy is
A. Cartier.
B. Lexus.
C. Bic.
D. A regional discount gas station chain.
E. Home Depot.
Answer: C
An organization that is offering unique, superior products or services to a wide market is pursuing a strategy of
An organization that is offering unique, superior products or services to a wide market is pursuing a strategy of
A. cost leadership.
B. differentiation.
C. cost focus.
D. diversification.
E. focused differentiation.
Answer: B
An organization is developing a low-cost line of environmentally friendly cleaning products that it intends to distribute internationally. Here, the organization is following a ______ strategy.
An organization is developing a low-cost line of environmentally friendly cleaning products that it intends to distribute internationally. Here, the organization is following a ______ strategy.
A. cost leadership
B. differentiation
C. cost focus
D. retrenchment
E. focused-differentiation
Answer: A
Porter's competitive strategies include
Porter's competitive strategies include
A. prospector, defender, analyzer, and reactor.
B. growth, stability, and retrenchment.
C. cost leadership, differentiation, cost focus, and focused differentiation.
D. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
E. stars, questions marks, cash cows, and dogs.
Answer: C
Oil companies must be aware of other firms' development of ethanol products since this is an example of which one force in Porter's model for industry analysis?
Oil companies must be aware of other firms' development of ethanol products since this is an example of which one force in Porter's model for industry analysis?
A. Bargaining power of buyers.
B. Rivalry among competitors.
C. Bargaining power of suppliers.
D. Threats of new entrants.
E. Threats of substitute products and services.
Answer: E
Which of the following is not one of the forces that affects industry competition, according to Porter's model for industry analysis?
Which of the following is not one of the forces that affects industry competition, according to Porter's model for industry analysis?
A. Threats of new entrants.
B. Threats of substitute products and services.
C. Bargaining power of buyers.
D. Threats of government interference.
E. Bargaining power of suppliers.
Answer: D
Creation of alternative hypothetical but equally likely future conditions is called
Creation of alternative hypothetical but equally likely future conditions is called
A. contingency planning.
B. trend analysis.
C. balancing the scorecard.
D. strategy formulation.
E. forecasting.
Answer: A
A time-series forecast, which is used to predict long-term trends, cyclic patterns, and seasonal variations, is one type of
A time-series forecast, which is used to predict long-term trends, cyclic patterns, and seasonal variations, is one type of
A. organizational strength.
B. contingency planning.
C. trend analysis.
D. balanced scorecard.
E. strategy formulation.
Answer: C
A vision or projection of the future is called a(n)
A vision or projection of the future is called a(n)
A. trend.
B. forecast.
C. contingency.
D. strategy.
E. opportunity.
Answer: B
Alexis has prepared a report that details how prices for several raw materials her firm uses in production have risen by up to 30% in the last year. Her report would be an input into the __________ part of a SWOT analysis.
Alexis has prepared a report that details how prices for several raw materials her firm uses in production have risen by up to 30% in the last year. Her report would be an input into the __________ part of a SWOT analysis.
A. strengths
B. weaknesses
C. opportunities
D. threats
E. structure
Answer: D
Environmental factors that the organization may exploit for a competitive advantage are known as
Environmental factors that the organization may exploit for a competitive advantage are known as
A. organizational strengths.
B. organizational opportunities.
C. organizational threats.
D. organizational weaknesses.
E. competitive strategies.
Answer: B
The skills and capabilities that give the organization advantages in executing strategies in pursuit of its mission are known as
The skills and capabilities that give the organization advantages in executing strategies in pursuit of its mission are known as
A. organizational strengths.
B. organizational opportunities.
C. organizational threats.
D. organizational weaknesses.
E. competitive strategies.
Answer: A
Amanda has just determined that her employees will require extensive training if they are to acquire the necessary technological expertise to produce a new product line. She has discovered one of her firm's
Amanda has just determined that her employees will require extensive training if they are to acquire the necessary technological expertise to produce a new product line. She has discovered one of her firm's
A. strengths.
B. weaknesses.
C. opportunities.
D. threats.
E. market challenges.
Answer: B
A manager assessing the organization's access to capital is involved in analysis of
A manager assessing the organization's access to capital is involved in analysis of
A. strengths.
B. weaknesses.
C. opportunities.
D. threats.
E. strengths or weaknesses depending on the outcome of the assessment
Answer: E
Analysis of changing demographics of the U.S. population would be part of the assessment of a company's
Analysis of changing demographics of the U.S. population would be part of the assessment of a company's
A. strengths.
B. weaknesses.
C. opportunities.
D. threats.
E. opportunities or threats depending on the outcome of the analysis.
Answer: E
When analyzing the "T" in SWOT analysis, a manager might take note of
When analyzing the "T" in SWOT analysis, a manager might take note of
A. the firm's cash flow problems.
B. a competitor's new product.
C. employee absenteeism.
D. strong corporate culture.
E. high service levels.
Answer: B
When analyzing the "O" in SWOT analysis, a manager might take note of
When analyzing the "O" in SWOT analysis, a manager might take note of
A. favorable government regulations.
B. absenteeism among employees.
C. good morale among workers.
D. high service levels.
E. good financial position.
Answer: A
When analyzing the "W" in SWOT analysis, a manager might take note of
When analyzing the "W" in SWOT analysis, a manager might take note of
A. a decrease in consumer demand.
B. a competitor's bankruptcy.
C. high turnover of employees.
D. good financial resources of the firm.
E. institution of a tariff on foreign competitors.
Answer: C
When analyzing the "S" in a SWOT analysis, a manager might take note of
When analyzing the "S" in a SWOT analysis, a manager might take note of
A. a decrease in the size of the market.
B. competitors' new products.
C. high turnover of employees.
D. strong financial resources of the firm.
E. lifting of governmental regulations.
Answer: D
A situational analysis is also known as
A situational analysis is also known as
A. strategic control.
B. SWOT analysis.
C. trend analysis.
D. contingency planning.
E. forecasting.
Answer: B
Careful monitoring of an organization's internal and external environment to detect early signs of opportunities and threats that may influence the firm's plans is called
Careful monitoring of an organization's internal and external environment to detect early signs of opportunities and threats that may influence the firm's plans is called
A. competitive intelligence.
B. forecasting.
C. contingency planning.
D. trend analysis.
E. environmental scanning.
Answer: E
Rafaela is interested in learning more about what one of her competitors is doing so that she can anticipate its upcoming moves and react quickly. Which of the following would you suggest to her for this purpose?
Rafaela is interested in learning more about what one of her competitors is doing so that she can anticipate its upcoming moves and react quickly. Which of the following would you suggest to her for this purpose?
A. Go through the competitor's trash on its property.
B. Pose as an applicant for a job with the competitor.
C. Use investor information.
D. Call the competitor, explain who you are, and ask directly.
E. Pay the competitor's customers for information.
Answer: C
Which of the following is not a likely source of information for competitive intelligence?
Which of the following is not a likely source of information for competitive intelligence?
A. Competitors' press releases
B. Industry gossip
C. Competitors' annual reports
D. Competitor's customer records
E. Sales visits to customers
Answer: D
Gaining information about one's competitors' activities so that you can anticipate their moves and react appropriately is called
Gaining information about one's competitors' activities so that you can anticipate their moves and react appropriately is called
A. strategic forecasting.
B. corporate espionage.
C. contingency planning.
D. trend analysis.
E. competitive intelligence.
Answer: E
Which of the following is not one of Bryan Barry's recommendations to keep a strategic plan on track?
Which of the following is not one of Bryan Barry's recommendations to keep a strategic plan on track?
A. Keep moving.
B. Engage people.
C. Keep it simple.
D. Avoid compromise.
E. Stay focused.
Answer: D
_____ consists of monitoring the execution of strategy and making adjustments, if necessary.
_____ consists of monitoring the execution of strategy and making adjustments, if necessary.
A. Mission translation
B. Strategic control
C. Strategy implementation
D. Contingency planning
E. SWOT analysis
Answer: B
Actively selling strategic plans to middle and supervisory managers, rather than just announcing them, is helpful for
Actively selling strategic plans to middle and supervisory managers, rather than just announcing them, is helpful for
A. situation analysis.
B. strategy formulation.
C. strategy implementation.
D. contingency planning.
E. strategic control.
Answer: C
The process of choosing among different strategies and altering them to best fit the organization is called
The process of choosing among different strategies and altering them to best fit the organization is called
A. strategy formulation.
B. contingency planning.
C. strategic control.
D. strategy implementation.
E. trend analysis.
Answer: A
After film manufacturer Kodak failed to reinvent itself and declared bankruptcy in 2012, it decided to focus on its business of making inkjet printers as part of a ______ strategy.
After film manufacturer Kodak failed to reinvent itself and declared bankruptcy in 2012, it decided to focus on its business of making inkjet printers as part of a ______ strategy.
A. growth
B. stability
C. defensive
D. reorganization
E. reactor
Answer: C
A fine luggage maker was struggling with heavy debt and a sharp decline in customers, and it eventually declared bankruptcy. The company followed which grand strategy?
A fine luggage maker was struggling with heavy debt and a sharp decline in customers, and it eventually declared bankruptcy. The company followed which grand strategy?
A. Growth
B. Stability
C. Defensive
D. Reduction
E. Reactive
Answer: C
Recently ConocoPhillips, America's third-biggest oil company, spun off its refineries, pipelines, and chemicals division to form a new company called Phillips 66. Now ConocoPhillips will concentrate on its upstream operations. This is a variation of which of these grand strategies?
Recently ConocoPhillips, America's third-biggest oil company, spun off its refineries, pipelines, and chemicals division to form a new company called Phillips 66. Now ConocoPhillips will concentrate on its upstream operations. This is a variation of which of these grand strategies?
A. Right-size
B. Growth
C. Stability
D. Defensive
E. Reorganization
Answer: D
An Iowa ethanol production company has been suffering from a combination of lower demand for gasoline (into which its product is mixed) and higher corn prices (which is the largest input cost). It has responded by selling off land, buildings, and some of its reserve product inventory. This is a variation of which of these grand strategies?
An Iowa ethanol production company has been suffering from a combination of lower demand for gasoline (into which its product is mixed) and higher corn prices (which is the largest input cost). It has responded by selling off land, buildings, and some of its reserve product inventory. This is a variation of which of these grand strategies?
A. Right-size
B. Growth
C. Stability
D. Defensive
E. Reorganization
Answer: D
A grand strategy that involves reduction in the organization's efforts is the ______ strategy.
A grand strategy that involves reduction in the organization's efforts is the ______ strategy.
A. retrenchment
B. reorganization
C. downsizing
D. growth
E. stability
Answer: A
Faisal has been running a commercial real estate business for nearly 30 years. As he approaches retirement, he is content to simply lease the commercial space he currently has, rather than make new deals to develop additional properties. Faisal is using which grand strategy?
Faisal has been running a commercial real estate business for nearly 30 years. As he approaches retirement, he is content to simply lease the commercial space he currently has, rather than make new deals to develop additional properties. Faisal is using which grand strategy?
A. Stability
B. Retrenchment
C. Inducement
D. Defensive
E. Growth
Answer: A
High Peaks Skate and Snowboard is a small shop that provides equipment for Utah snowboarders in winter months. It has decided to increase advertising during this period in the Salt Lake Tribune and the Park Record in Park City, as well as to sponsor a new on-mountain competition. It is following which strategy?
High Peaks Skate and Snowboard is a small shop that provides equipment for Utah snowboarders in winter months. It has decided to increase advertising during this period in the Salt Lake Tribune and the Park Record in Park City, as well as to sponsor a new on-mountain competition. It is following which strategy?
A. Inducement
B. Defensive
C. Growth
D. Stability
E. Enhancement
Answer: C
Computer technology corporation Dell recently acquired Quest software, an IT management software provider, in order to expand upon its software expertise and offerings. Dell is pursuing a(n) ______ strategy.
Computer technology corporation Dell recently acquired Quest software, an IT management software provider, in order to expand upon its software expertise and offerings. Dell is pursuing a(n) ______ strategy.
A. escalation
B. growth
C. stability
D. merger
E. defensive
Answer: B
The common grand strategies are
The common grand strategies are
A. star, question mark, cash cow, and dog.
B. cost-leadership, differentiation, cost focus, and focused differentiation.
C. growth, stability, and defensive.
D. strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats.
E. defender, prospector, analyzer, and reactor.
Answer: C
Which of the following is a question that should be answered by a company's mission statement?
Which of the following is a question that should be answered by a company's mission statement?
A. Will it inspire enthusiasm and encourage commitment?
B. Does it set standards of excellence?
C. Is it appropriate for the organization?
D. Is it well articulated?
E. Who is our customer?
Answer: E
Which of the following should be included in a good vision statement?
Which of the following should be included in a good vision statement?
A. Firm's attitude toward its employees.
B. Geographical areas in which the firm will compete.
C. Firm's basic technology.
D. Firm's standards of excellence and high ideals.
E. Firm's major products or services.
Answer: D
Which of the following is not a stage in the strategic-management process?
Which of the following is not a stage in the strategic-management process?
A. Conduct a trend analysis.
B. Maintain strategic control.
C. Establish the grand strategy.
D. Establish the mission and vision.
E. Carry out the strategic plans.
Answer: A
Which of the following steps of the strategic-management process is the source of its feedback loop?
Which of the following steps of the strategic-management process is the source of its feedback loop?
A. Carry out the strategic plan.
B. Maintain strategic control.
C. Establish the grand strategy.
D. Establish the mission and vision.
E. Formulate the strategic plans.
Answer: B
Which of the following best represents a currently popular strategy among big companies like Apple, Google, and Amazon?
Which of the following best represents a currently popular strategy among big companies like Apple, Google, and Amazon?
A. Become involved in the community.
B. Seek niches where there is less competition.
C. Get consumers tightly connected to the company's ecosystem.
D. Offer personal or emotional connections to customers.
E. Discourage price comparisons.
Answer: C
Milo owns and manages a small bike repair store. In order to determine if strategic planning will be likely to help his business, Milo should primarily assess
Milo owns and manages a small bike repair store. In order to determine if strategic planning will be likely to help his business, Milo should primarily assess
A. how many competitors he has.
B. foot traffic by his location.
C. his profitability in the prior six months.
D. industry trends.
E. how much he intends to grow in the next five years.
Answer: A
Anne runs a small bakery on the main street of a resort town. Though hers was the only bakery around, the business had been suffering during the economic slowdown, and she was contemplating whether she should attempt strategic planning. Anne should be aware of what research finding regarding strategic planning?
Anne runs a small bakery on the main street of a resort town. Though hers was the only bakery around, the business had been suffering during the economic slowdown, and she was contemplating whether she should attempt strategic planning. Anne should be aware of what research finding regarding strategic planning?
A. Only large firms show performance gains from strategic planning.
B. Only small firms show performance gains from strategic planning.
C. Performance gains from strategic planning are equal among small and large firms.
D. Both small and large firms benefit from strategic planning, but small firms get a larger boost in performance.
E Both small and large firms benefit from strategic planning, but the small improvement in . performance may not be worth the effort for small firms.
Answer: E
A small firm is likely to benefit significantly from strategic planning
A small firm is likely to benefit significantly from strategic planning
A. regardless of the nature of its industry or market.
B. when it is in a very competitive industry.
C. when it is in a very new industry.
D. when it is in a very stable industry.
E. when it has a very small market.
Answer: B
Consumers can use a national company called Service Magic to receive bids from quality providers of a variety of services, including home remodel, landscaping, plumbing, and housecleaning. Service Magic charges service providers for the leads it provides to them monthly. Which of the following is the source of Service Magic's strategic position?
Consumers can use a national company called Service Magic to receive bids from quality providers of a variety of services, including home remodel, landscaping, plumbing, and housecleaning. Service Magic charges service providers for the leads it provides to them monthly. Which of the following is the source of Service Magic's strategic position?
A. Low-profit margin and many customers.
B. Broad needs and few customers.
C. Broad needs and many customers.
D. High-profit margin and many customers.
E. High-profit margin and few customers.
Answer: C
Which of the following statements about strategy and strategic positioning is false?
Which of the following statements about strategy and strategic positioning is false?
A. Many customers with broad needs can be a source of strategic position.
B. A company has to choose not only what strategy to follow but what strategy not to follow.
C. Few customers with broad needs can be a source of strategic position.
D. Strategy involves creating a "fit" among activities.
E. Few customers with narrow needs can be a source of strategic position.
Answer: E
_______ means performing different activities from rivals or performing similar ones in different ways.
_______ means performing different activities from rivals or performing similar ones in different ways.
A. Competitive planning
B. Distinctive positioning
C. Collaborative planning
D. Strategic segmentation
E. Strategic positioning
Answer: E
Which of the following is not an area in which a company needs to get and stay ahead in order to sustain a competitive advantage?
Which of the following is not an area in which a company needs to get and stay ahead in order to sustain a competitive advantage?
A. Talented employees
B. Quality
C. Effectiveness
D. Being responsive to customers
E. Innovating
Answer: A
Which of the following is not a typical cause of bad planning?
Which of the following is not a typical cause of bad planning?
A. Information overload.
B. Inadequate planning budgets.
C. Ineffective group dynamics.
D. Poor assessment of an organization's capabilities.
E. Faulty assumptions about the future.
Answer: B
Which of the following statements about strategic planning and strategic management is true?
Which of the following statements about strategic planning and strategic management is true?
A. Strategic planning is rarely used in the current environment of fast change because it does not allow for flexibility.
B. Strategic management is a process completed by top managers.
C. Both should be implemented because they can provide direction and momentum.
D. Middle managers need not understand strategies; they simply follow them.
E. Strategic planning is used to accomplish tactical goals.
Answer: C
Which of the following would be considered a reason for adopting strategic management and strategic planning?
Which of the following would be considered a reason for adopting strategic management and strategic planning?
A. To enhance employee loyalty.
B. To keep corporate taxes at a minimum.
C. To develop independent work from the staff.
D. To provide develop a sustainable competitive advantage.
E. To increase market dominance with repeat purchase.
Answer: D
Effective strategic management involves
Effective strategic management involves
A. only top management.
B. only top and middle management.
C. only middle and lower management levels.
D. only lower management level.
E. managers from all parts of the organization.
Answer: E
"Find out what customers want, then provide it to them as cheaply and quickly as possible" is Walmart's
"Find out what customers want, then provide it to them as cheaply and quickly as possible" is Walmart's
A. growth plan.
B. technical plan.
C. synergy.
D. strategy.
E. forecast.
Answer: D
A ______ represents an "educated guess" about what must be done in the long term for survival or the prosperity of the organization or its principal parts.
A ______ represents an "educated guess" about what must be done in the long term for survival or the prosperity of the organization or its principal parts.
A. trend analysis
B. mission
C. strategy
D. forecast
E. contingency plan
Answer: C
T / F - MRP is a type of pull system.
T / F - MRP is a type of pull system.
Answer: False
T / F - In MRP systems, inventories are managed according to their dollar usage values (i.e., high dollar usage inventories are more carefully managed compared to low dollar usage inventories).
T / F - In MRP systems, inventories are managed according to their dollar usage values (i.e., high dollar usage inventories are more carefully managed compared to low dollar usage inventories).
Answer: True
The bill of materials:
The bill of materials:
A. Shows how much inventory is available
B. Is a bill sent to the customer for material ordered
C. Is a list of all materials required to produce a part
D. None of the above
Answer: C
The parts explosion results in the following outputs:
The parts explosion results in the following outputs:
A. Purchase orders and S&OP (aggregate planning)
B. Purchase orders and bill of materials
C. Purchase orders and shop orders
D. Shop orders and inventory orders
Answer: C
Planned lead times:
Planned lead times:
A. Usually are longer than actual working times
B. Ignore interference from other jobs
C. Usually are shorter than actual working times
D. Assume the work is expedited and completed as quickly as possible
Answer: A
Successful MRP implementation requires:
Successful MRP implementation requires:
A. Management support, parts explosion, and adequate computer support
B. Marketing support, master schedule, and bill of materials
C. Management support, accurate data, and adequate computer support
D. None of the above
Answer: C
The three inputs for an MRP parts explosion are:
The three inputs for an MRP parts explosion are:
A. Inventory, master schedule, and bill of materials
B. Forecast, inventory, and bill of materials
C. Capacity, master schedule, and inventory
D. Forecast, bill of materials, and master schedule
Answer: A
T / F - A decrease in an item's lead-time will increase the amount of safety stock required to maintain a constant service level.
T / F - A decrease in an item's lead-time will increase the amount of safety stock required to maintain a constant service level.
Answer: False
T / F - Transit inventories are also referred to as pipeline inventories because they consist of materials that are on their way from one point to another point in the supply chain.
T / F - Transit inventories are also referred to as pipeline inventories because they consist of materials that are on their way from one point to another point in the supply chain.
Answer: True
Transportation cost is an example of:
Transportation cost is an example of:
A. Item cost
B. Ordering cost
C. Carrying cost
D. Storage cost
Answer: B
A computerized inventory system checks inventory levels at the end of the week and produces suggested orders for the coming week. What kind of system is this?
A computerized inventory system checks inventory levels at the end of the week and produces suggested orders for the coming week. What kind of system is this?
A. A periodic review system
B. A continuous review system
C. A service level system
D. An ABC inventory system
Answer: A
Which cost defines the cost of capital?
Which cost defines the cost of capital?
A. Item cost
B. Storage cost
C. Deterioration cost
D. Opportunity cost of investment in inventory
Answer: D
The carrying cost for inventory consists of which cost components?
The carrying cost for inventory consists of which cost components?
A. Capital cost, obsolescence cost, and ordering cost
B. Obsolescence cost, capital cost, and stockout cost
C. Obsolescence cost, storage cost, and capital cost
D. Storage cost, handling cost, and obsolescence cost
Answer: C
Of the cost elements making up total inventory cost, which is the most difficult to estimate?
Of the cost elements making up total inventory cost, which is the most difficult to estimate?
A. Stockout costs
B. Holding costs
C. Carrying costs
D. Item cost
Answer: A
T / F - A work-breakdown structure is used in the scheduling activity of project management.
T / F - A work-breakdown structure is used in the scheduling activity of project management.
Answer: True
"Slack" refers to the difference between:
"Slack" refers to the difference between:
A. Late and early times
B. Finish and start times
C. Observed and predicted times
D. Optimistic and pessimistic times
Answer: A
Project managers' work includes:
Project managers' work includes:
A. Planning, Scheduling, Control, and Closing
B. Planning, Scheduling, Starting, and Ending
C. Scheduling, Control, Starting, and Ending
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Project management requires:
Project management requires:
A. Scheduling, planning, and controlling
B. Quantitative skills
C. Behavioral skills
D. All of the above
Answer: D
The purpose of performing a forward pass is to:
The purpose of performing a forward pass is to:
A. Identify the critical path
B. Determine the early start and the early finish times
C. Determine the late start and the late finish times
D. Determine the slack available in the process
Answer: B
The job of the project manager is to:
The job of the project manager is to:
A. Control all costs
B. Control costs, schedule, and performance of the project
C. Keep within the budget, no matter what
D. All of the above
Answer: B
T / F - Throughput is defined as the difference between the sales and the operating expenses of a plant.
T / F - Throughput is defined as the difference between the sales and the operating expenses of a plant.
Answer: True
T / F - Finite Capacity Scheduling can be used to identify the bottleneck in a given process.
T / F - Finite Capacity Scheduling can be used to identify the bottleneck in a given process.
Answer: True
Which of the following is NOT determined by Gantt charting?
Which of the following is NOT determined by Gantt charting?
A. The waiting time of each job
B. Makespan of all jobs
C. Resource utilization
D. Finite capacity scheduling
Answer: D
Scheduling systems answer all of the following questions EXCEPT:
Scheduling systems answer all of the following questions EXCEPT:
A. What delivery date do I promise?
B. How much will the schedule cost?
C. When should I start each particular activity or task?
D. How do I make sure that the job is completed on time?
Answer: B
A bottleneck is:
A bottleneck is:
A. A resource that has the maximum capacity in the facility
B. A resource whose capacity is less than the capacity of all other resources and whose capacity is less than the demand placed on it
C. A resource that blocks labor productivity
D. A resource that has the fastest processing time
Answer: B
Scheduling deals with which three conflicting objectives?
Scheduling deals with which three conflicting objectives?
A. High efficiency, high profits, and short lead-time
B. High profits, low inventories, and good customer service
C. Low inventories, high efficiency, and good customer service
D. Low inventories, good customer service, and short lead-time
Answer: C
Aggregate planning and scheduling differ in that:
Aggregate planning and scheduling differ in that:
A. The former ensures capacity is efficiently used whereas the latter is the acquisition of resources.
B. The former is short term in nature while the latter is medium term.
C. The former is last in the hierarchy of capacity planning decisions and the latter is first.
D. The former deals with acquiring resources and the latter deals with allocating resources.
Answer: D
T / F - Forecasting of demand is always equivalent to forecasting of sales.
T / F - Forecasting of demand is always equivalent to forecasting of sales.
Answer: False
T / F - Quantitative forecasting methods should be used for predicting the demand patterns of new products introduced in the market.
T / F - Quantitative forecasting methods should be used for predicting the demand patterns of new products introduced in the market.
Answer: False
T / F - All forecasts should include two estimates: An estimate of the demand and an estimate of the forecasting error.
T / F - All forecasts should include two estimates: An estimate of the demand and an estimate of the forecasting error.
Answer: True
The difference between actual demand and the forecast is:
The difference between actual demand and the forecast is:
A. Forecast error
B. Mean absolute percentage error
C. Absolute deviation of forecast error
D. Mean absolute deviation of forecast error
Answer: A
When should qualitative methods NOT be used?
When should qualitative methods NOT be used?
A. When historic data are unreliable
B. When it is impossible to obtain historic data
C. For short-range, repetitive decisions
D. When making major, costly decisions, such as facilities location
Answer: C
A qualitative forecast would most likely be used for:
A qualitative forecast would most likely be used for:
A. Aggregate planning
B. Scheduling
C. Process design
D. Inventory management
Answer: C
T / F - In supply chain improvement, it is often necessary to reduce the setup time of equipment dramatically so that smaller lots of the product can be economically produced.
T / F - In supply chain improvement, it is often necessary to reduce the setup time of equipment dramatically so that smaller lots of the product can be economically produced.
Answer: True
T / F - The objective of structural and infrastructure changes is the same: To remove sources of uncertainty, to reduce replenishment time, and to reduce total cost of supplying the market.
T / F - The objective of structural and infrastructure changes is the same: To remove sources of uncertainty, to reduce replenishment time, and to reduce total cost of supplying the market.
Answer: True
T / F - Major product redesign is often needed to make infrastructure improvements in the supply chain.
T / F - Major product redesign is often needed to make infrastructure improvements in the supply chain.
Answer: False
Materials handling, transportation, and warehousing are elements of:
Materials handling, transportation, and warehousing are elements of:
A. Logistics
B. Purchasing
C. Demand chain management
D. Fill rate
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT a type of e-procurement?
Which of the following is NOT a type of e-procurement?
A. Private exchanges
B. Third party auctions
C. Online catalogs
D. B2B marketplaces
Answer: D
Which of the following is a form of infrastructure change?
Which of the following is a form of infrastructure change?
A. Process simplification
B. Product redesign
C. Changes in information systems
D. Forward integration
Answer: C
The five measures of supply chain performance are:
The five measures of supply chain performance are:
A. Cost, quality, flexibility, delivery, and time
B. Cost, quality, time, delivery, and reliability
C. Inventory, quality, time, delivery, and flexibility
D. Inventory, cost, quality, time, and delivery
Answer: A
The design and management of seamless, value-added processes across organizational boundaries to meet the real needs of the end customer is called:
The design and management of seamless, value-added processes across organizational boundaries to meet the real needs of the end customer is called:
A. Demand management
B. Distribution channel management
C. Supply chain management
D. Logistics management
Answer: C
T / F - Six Sigma projects are typically managed by workers certified as black belts.
T / F - Six Sigma projects are typically managed by workers certified as black belts.
Answer: True
T / F - The seven tools of quality control are equally applicable to both manufacturing and service industries.
T / F - The seven tools of quality control are equally applicable to both manufacturing and service industries.
Answer: True
T / F - "A production process delivers large amount of scrap products. Top management has discovered that improper machine maintenance is the reason behind this failure."
T / F - "A production process delivers large amount of scrap products. Top management has discovered that improper machine maintenance is the reason behind this failure."
The above statement is an example of a special cause of variation.
Answer: True
Which of the following statements is NOT true about six sigma quality?
Which of the following statements is NOT true about six sigma quality?
A. Six sigma results in 3.4 ppm defects
B. Six sigma corresponds to 3 standard deviations on either side of the mean
C. Six sigma can be applied to administrative and service processes as well
D. Motorola invented the term "six sigma quality" in the mid-80s
Answer: B
One of the earliest steps in designing a quality control system is to decide on:
One of the earliest steps in designing a quality control system is to decide on:
A. The amount of inspection to use
B. Who should do the inspection
C. The type of measurement to be used
D. Training workers to perform inspection on their own work
Answer: C
A cause-and-effect diagram:
A cause-and-effect diagram:
A. Identifies common causes of quality defects
B. Is often used in conjunction with a Pareto chart
C. Is also called a fishbone diagram
D. All of the above are true
Answer: D
A process control chart:
A process control chart:
A. Assumes that 99.74% of special cause variation will fall between upper and lower limits
B. Has upper and lower control limits set at 2 standard deviations from the center line
C. Separates the assignable cause of variation from the common cause of variation
Answer: C
A complete system of quality control:
A complete system of quality control:
A. Is defined by critical control points, inspectors, measurements, costs, and other considerations
B. Involves a zero defects philosophy
C. Requires a continuous scale for measurement of defects
D. Must include both variable and attribute measurements
Answer: A
T / F - Availability refers to the length of time a product can be used before it fails.
T / F - Availability refers to the length of time a product can be used before it fails.
Answer: False
T / F - ISO 9000 standards guarantee that a product or service has no defects.
T / F - ISO 9000 standards guarantee that a product or service has no defects.
Answer: False
T / F - It is important to determine the quality of design even before producing the product.
T / F - It is important to determine the quality of design even before producing the product.
Answer: True
_____ is a combination of reliability and maintainability.
_____ is a combination of reliability and maintainability.
A. Field service
B. Availability
C. Quality of conformance
D. Mean time to repair
Answer: B
The quality cycle:
The quality cycle:
A. Begins with defining customer needs
B. Is stated as tolerances or minimum and maximum acceptable limits
C. Is used for services, not products
D. Produces control points and inspection techniques
Answer: A
The number of defects in a product measures:
The number of defects in a product measures:
A. Reliability of the process
B. Conformance quality of the process
C. Repeatability of the process
D. Performance quality of the process
Answer: B
SERVQUAL measures which dimension of service quality
SERVQUAL measures which dimension of service quality
A. Reliability, Tangibles, Assurance, Empathy, and Conformance Quality
B. Performance Quality, Tangibles, Responsiveness, Reliability, and Assurance
C. Responsiveness, Tangibles, Empathy, Assurance, and Reliability
D. Reliability, Tangibles, Responsiveness, Empathy, and Conformance Quality
Answer: C
Mean time between failure:
Mean time between failure:
A. Is used to measure a product's reliability
B. Is used to measure a product's maintainability
C. Is used to measure a product's maintainability and availability
D. Is a measure of up time/(up time + down time)
Answer: A
T / F - A kanban system cannot be used in service industries.
T / F - A kanban system cannot be used in service industries.
Answer: False
T / F - Value stream maps are similar to flowcharts and are used for identifying the waste and non-value-added steps in the current process.
T / F - Value stream maps are similar to flowcharts and are used for identifying the waste and non-value-added steps in the current process.
Answer: True
T / F - According to the lean philosophy, a stable master production schedule is desirable to reduce the work-in-process inventories.
T / F - According to the lean philosophy, a stable master production schedule is desirable to reduce the work-in-process inventories.
Answer: True
External setup time refers to:
External setup time refers to:
A. The time it takes workers to set up a machine during scheduled maintenance
B. The time to complete setup activities that do not require that the machine be stopped
C. The time it takes equipment vendors to set up the machine
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Why is a uniform load desirable in a lean system?
Why is a uniform load desirable in a lean system?
A. To balance the workload on all work centers
B. To allow for production of safety stock
C. To signal the need for more parts
D. To increase the time for scheduled maintenance
Answer: A
One of the main objectives of a lean system is:
One of the main objectives of a lean system is:
A. Striving for 'good enough'
B. Reduction of task time
C. Reduction of waste
D. Define value from the manufacturer's perspective
Answer: C
Lean emphasizes all of the following except:
Lean emphasizes all of the following except:
A. Setup time reductions
B. Cross training of workers
C. Lot size reduction
D. Increased utilization of machines
Answer: D
Which of the following is not an element of lean?
Which of the following is not an element of lean?
A. Small-lot sizes
B. Modularized master schedule
C. Multifunction workers
D. Kanban pull system
E. Perfect or nearly perfect quality
Answer: B
T / F - According to the service profit chain, employees are more likely to be satisfied when management works to improve internal service quality.
T / F - According to the service profit chain, employees are more likely to be satisfied when management works to improve internal service quality.
Answer: True
T / F - Service guarantees are only for consumers outside the firm, and do not apply to internal customer relationships within a firm.
T / F - Service guarantees are only for consumers outside the firm, and do not apply to internal customer relationships within a firm.
Answer: False
T / F - The customer is a part of the service delivery process and may introduce inefficiencies into the service delivery system.
T / F - The customer is a part of the service delivery process and may introduce inefficiencies into the service delivery system.
Answer: True
The service-profit chain shows that _____ is the key to profitability.
The service-profit chain shows that _____ is the key to profitability.
A. customer loyalty
B. customer satisfaction
C. customer contact
D. employee productivity
Answer: A
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of service operations?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of service operations?
A. Intangible output
B. The buyer can perform part of the production
C. Product cannot be stored
D. Ownership is transferred at time of purchase
Answer: D
A service recovery process:
A service recovery process:
A. Follows every service transaction
B. Is an implicit service
C. Is rapid compensation for a service failure
D. None of the above
Answer: C
The degree of customer contact measures:
The degree of customer contact measures:
A. The amount of time the customer is separated from the service delivery system
B. The amount of time the customer is in the service delivery system while the service is being produced
C. The customization abilities of the service system
D. None of the above
Answer: B
Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of a service?
Which of the following is NOT a general characteristic of a service?
A. Production and consumption are simultaneous
B. The service can be transported
C. No resale is possible
D. The service cannot be stored
Answer: B
T / F - In a batch operation, each product must have the same flow path and must pass through all of the same work centers.
T / F - In a batch operation, each product must have the same flow path and must pass through all of the same work centers.
Answer: False
T / F - Continuous processes and assembly lines are very efficient but have little flexibility.
T / F - Continuous processes and assembly lines are very efficient but have little flexibility.
Answer: True
Which of the following are the three forms of mass customization:
Which of the following are the three forms of mass customization:
A. Modular production, postponement, and efficient customer response
B. Fast changeover, modular production, and make-to-stock
C. Modular production, postponement, and fast changeover
D. Assemble-to-order, modular production, and value analysis
Answer: C
The type of processing system that is used for complex jobs with a unique or creative set of activities and where automation is virtually impossible is:
The type of processing system that is used for complex jobs with a unique or creative set of activities and where automation is virtually impossible is:
A. Mass production
B. Continuous production
C. Project
D. Batch
Answer: C
The type of processing system that has high product variety and moderate capital investment is:
The type of processing system that has high product variety and moderate capital investment is:
A. Line
B. Continuous production
C. Project
D. Batch
E. Mass production
Answer: D
The type of processing system that is used for highly standardized products such as oil and gasoline is:
The type of processing system that is used for highly standardized products such as oil and gasoline is:
A. Mass production
B. Continuous process
C. Project
D. Batch
Answer: B
A make-to-order operation would be primarily concerned with:
A make-to-order operation would be primarily concerned with:
A. Forecasting demand
B. Production planning
C. Balancing inventory and service
D. Lead-time
Answer: D
Process efficiency is usually highest in which type of process?
Process efficiency is usually highest in which type of process?
A. Assembly line
B. Batch
C. Project
D. Job shop
Answer: A
T / F - ISO 9000 requires that a new-product development process be defined and followed by a company.
T / F - ISO 9000 requires that a new-product development process be defined and followed by a company.
Answer: True
T / F - Market pull is the best way to introduce new products.
T / F - Market pull is the best way to introduce new products.
Answer: False
T / F - Product design supports the business strategy.
T / F - Product design supports the business strategy.
Answer: True
When marketing, engineering, and operations simultaneously develop a product, this approach is known as _________.
When marketing, engineering, and operations simultaneously develop a product, this approach is known as _________.
A. Sequential process
B. Traditional approach
C. Concurrent engineering
Answer: C
In which phase of the new-product design process should considerations about trade offs among product cost, quality, and schedule be made?
In which phase of the new-product design process should considerations about trade offs among product cost, quality, and schedule be made?
A. Concept development
B. Product design
C. Preliminary process design
D. Pilot production/testing
Answer: B
Process design:
Process design:
A. Is the way new product ideas are developed
B. Is the next stage after product design
C. Is considered less important to a company than product design
D. Should occur at the same time as product design
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT part of the new-product development process?
Which of the following is NOT part of the new-product development process?
A. Concept development
B. Product design
C. Development of the marketing strategy
D. Pilot production/testing
Answer: C
The market-pull view of new product innovation is to:
The market-pull view of new product innovation is to:
A. "Pull" the products into the market as fast as possible
B. Develop products that the company can sell, based on customer needs
C. Market whatever the company makes best
D. Make new products appealing through innovative packaging
Answer: B
T / F - Imitative products have low profit margins and fairly predictable demand.
T / F - Imitative products have low profit margins and fairly predictable demand.
Answer: True
T / F - The business strategy can be derived from a firm's distinctive competence that is difficult for competitors to copy or imitate.
T / F - The business strategy can be derived from a firm's distinctive competence that is difficult for competitors to copy or imitate.
Answer: True
T / F - A corporate strategy drives the business strategy, which in turn drives the operations strategy in an organization.
T / F - A corporate strategy drives the business strategy, which in turn drives the operations strategy in an organization.
Answer: True
A decision is made that suppliers will be chosen based on quality rather than cost. This is an example of which of the following?
A decision is made that suppliers will be chosen based on quality rather than cost. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Objective
B. Mission
C. Distinctive Competence
D. Strategic decision
Answer: D
Make or buy is an example of what type of strategic decision?
Make or buy is an example of what type of strategic decision?
A. Inventory
B. Process
C. Quality
D. Capacity
Answer: B
The operation objectives of quality, cost, delivery, and flexibility are:
The operation objectives of quality, cost, delivery, and flexibility are:
A. Mutually exclusive
B. Independent of each other
C. Connected
D. Unique
Answer: C
The four elements that form the heart of operations strategy include:
The four elements that form the heart of operations strategy include:
A. Mission, distinctive competence, objectives, and internal analysis
B. Mission, distinctive competence, internal analysis, and external analysis
C. Mission, objectives, internal analysis, and external analysis
D. Mission, distinctive competence, objectives, and strategic decisions
Answer: D
At Disney, "making people happy" is an example of:
At Disney, "making people happy" is an example of:
A. Operations Mission
B. Corporate Strategy
C. Business Strategy
D. Operations Strategy
Answer: B
T / F - Best practices in operations are best for all organizations.
T / F - Best practices in operations are best for all organizations.
Answer: False
T / F - As price increases and benefits remain constant, the value of a product increases.
T / F - As price increases and benefits remain constant, the value of a product increases.
Answer: False
T / F - The process view provides a basis for viewing an entire business as a system of interconnected processes.
T / F - The process view provides a basis for viewing an entire business as a system of interconnected processes.
Answer: True
The three primary functions that exist in most business organizations are:
The three primary functions that exist in most business organizations are:
A. Operations, accounting, and finance
B. Operations, production, and finance
C. Production, marketing, and human resources
D. Operations, finance, and marketing
Answer: D
The essence of operations management can be described by:
The essence of operations management can be described by:
A. Process, capacity, and people
B. Decisions, function, and process
C. Planning, control, and organization
D. Integrated planning and control
Answer: B
The contemporary operations themes signify that:
The contemporary operations themes signify that:
A. More emphasis should be placed on manufacturing than on service industries
B. Every operation should be externally directed to meet the customers' requirements
C. Operations decisions should precede decisions in other functions in an organization
D. To be competitive, strategies for operations should exclude broader supply chain issues
Answer: B
The four decision areas in operations management are:
The four decision areas in operations management are:
A. Planning, technology, inventory, and control
B. Process, quality, capacity, and inventory
C. Process, quality, technology, and capacity
D. None of these
Answer: B
Why is operations management a more encompassing term than production management?
Why is operations management a more encompassing term than production management?
A. Operations management is concerned with multiple products and services
B. Operations management refers to service as well as manufacturing organizations
C. Operations management is broader including the financing and marketing functions
D. Operations management makes use of the tools of quantitative analysis and computer systems
Answer: B
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