Which of the following is true about Arab negotiators?

Which of the following is true about Arab negotiators? A. Arab negotiators do not use conferences as mediating devices B. Arab negotiators generally...

Arab negotiators will most likely make concessions because of their interest in __________

Arab negotiators will most likely make concessions because of their interest in __________ Answer: forming long-term relationship...

Which of the following is true about the negotiating tactics used by the Russians?

Which of the following is true about the negotiating tactics used by the Russians? A. they are quick decision makers B. the believe that "time is...

In the __________ culture, negotiators tend to use the word "no" repeatedly, and they are best described as spontaneous and talkative.

In the __________ culture, negotiators tend to use the word "no" repeatedly, and they are best described as spontaneous and talkative. Answer: Br...

In which of the following countries do people typically begin the concessions and agreement stage of negotiation with what they are prepared to accept rather than take extreme positions?

In which of the following countries do people typically begin the concessions and agreement stage of negotiation with what they are prepared to accept...

What forms the basis for the enforcement of most business contracts in Mexico and China?

What forms the basis for the enforcement of most business contracts in Mexico and China? Answer: personal commitments to individual...

During the exchange of task-related information, who among the following people would most likely ask many questions of their counterparts, delve specifically and repeatedly into the details at hand, and provide only vague and ambiguous material during a presentation?

During the exchange of task-related information, who among the following people would most likely ask many questions of their counterparts, delve specifically...

T/F Many Arab negotiators, following Islamic tradition, use mediators to settle disputes

T/F Many Arab negotiators, following Islamic tradition, use mediators to settle disputes Answer: Tru...

When preparing for cross-cultural negotiations, managers should first evaluate their own negotiation styles in order to __________

When preparing for cross-cultural negotiations, managers should first evaluate their own negotiation styles in order to __________ Answer: determine...

Which of the following is most likely to be true about negotiators in the Far East?

Which of the following is most likely to be true about negotiators in the Far East? A. negotiators avoid building relationships B. negotiators approach...

T/F during the stage of concessions and agreement, Russians and Chinese generally take extreme positions

T/F during the stage of concessions and agreement, Russians and Chinese generally take extreme positions Answer: Fals...

Which of the following is most likely a subtle and complex behavior that makes cross-cultural negotiations difficult?

Which of the following is most likely a subtle and complex behavior that makes cross-cultural negotiations difficult? A. developing goals of negotiation B....

In the American culture, which of the following is most likely to be considered a "dirty trick" during cross-cultural negotiations?

In the American culture, which of the following is most likely to be considered a "dirty trick" during cross-cultural negotiations? A. establishing...

The purpose of Wellness Plan is to:

The purpose of Wellness Plan is to: A. Promote preventive care B. Promote all-inclusive care C. Promote pet health insurance D. Non of the above Answer: A....

Wellness plans should be developed by:

Wellness plans should be developed by: A. Species B. Age group C. Client preferences D. A and B Answer: D. A and ...

An amount an owner pays on a monthly basis is known as a:

An amount an owner pays on a monthly basis is known as a: A. Premium B. Deductible C. Co-pay D. All of the above Answer: A. Premiu...

Indemnity insurance is also known as:

Indemnity insurance is also known as: A. Managed care B. HMO delivered C. PPO delivered D. None of the above Answer: D. None of the abov...

Pet health insurance:

Pet health insurance: A. Improves patient care B. Increases patient examinations C. Decreases stop treatment threshold D. A and B Answer: D....

Why should wellness plans be available for clients?

Why should wellness plans be available for clients? Answer: Clients are asking for payment plans, so that they can budget the best care possible...

What is a lifetime limit?

What is a lifetime limit? Answer: A lifetime limit is the maximum amount a policy will pay, for the lifetime of the pe...

What is considered a congenital condition?

What is considered a congenital condition? Answer: A congenital condition is a condition or disease that is an abnormality at birth, and it...

What is considered a hereditary condition?

What is considered a hereditary condition? Answer: A hereditary condition is a condition that is passed from the genes of the parents to the...

What is the benefit of an annual deductible versus a per-incident deductible?

What is the benefit of an annual deductible versus a per-incident deductible? Answer: The benefit of an annual deductible is that it is a once...

What are the three most common feline condition?

What are the three most common feline condition? Answer: The top three feline conditions are urinary tract infections, gastritis, and renal...

What are the three most common canine conditions?

What are the three most common canine conditions? Answer: the top three common canine condition are ear infections, skin allergies, and hot...

What is an annual premium?

What is an annual premium? Answer: A premium is the dollar amount the owner pays to maintain a policy for their pet...

What is a co-pay?

What is a co-pay? Answer: A co-pay is the percentage that the owner is responsible for after the deductible has been met, as determined by the...

Define an annual deductible.

Define an annual deductible. Answer: An annual deductible is an amount paid once yearly, as determined by the policy...

What are the characteristics of an effective allergy diet?

What are the characteristics of an effective allergy diet? Answer: An effective allergy diet is composed of proteins that are hydrolyzed, preventing...

Why must a euthanasia release form be signed by the owner?

Why must a euthanasia release form be signed by the owner? Answer: The clinic must ensure the owner knows and understands the result of euthanasia,...

How can a team prevent the wrong ashes from being sent home with an owner?

How can a team prevent the wrong ashes from being sent home with an owner? Answer: The container should be clearly marked with the name of the...

How does this drug affect the body?

How does this drug affect the body? Answer: The drug depresses the cardiac and respiratory systems until they stop...

What drug is in a euthanasia solution?

What drug is in a euthanasia solution? Answer: A barbiturate is the active drug in a euthanasia solution...

How should a pet be presented to an owner after it has been euthanized?

How should a pet be presented to an owner after it has been euthanized? Answer: The pet should be presented without catheters or bandaging materials....

In what ways can a pet be memorialized?

In what ways can a pet be memorialized? Answer: Cards, flowers, paw prints, clay impressions, or picture collages are all suggestions...

Why is the human-animal bond so strong?

Why is the human-animal bond so strong? Answer: Many people form a special bond with pets because they can share many life experiences with...

What are the five stages of grief? Describe each.

What are the five stages of grief? Describe each. Answer: -Denial: Owners do not believe that their pet is as sick or injured as it really is; often...

Why is quality of life important?

Why is quality of life important? Answer: Pets should be able to urinate, defecate, and eat to have a good quality of life. Those that do not...

What is euthanasia?

What is euthanasia? Answer: Euthanasia is the human form of providing an easy and painless death...

Medical record audits should:

Medical record audits should: A. Capture missed charges B. Identify incomplete medical records C. Identify lapses in recommendations D. All of the...

Purging medical records:

Purging medical records: A. Increases lost records B. Is required by law C. Allows inactive records to be shredded D. Moves inactive medical records...

The objective portion of the SOAP format includes:

The objective portion of the SOAP format includes: A. Chief complaint of the client B. Observations of team members upon check-in C. Physical exam D....

Medical records:

Medical records: A. Can be released to any person asking for a copy B. Must be released to the owner only C. Must have an owner's consent to be released...

Legible, complete medical records are an asset to the hospital, and they bring valve during a valuation.

Legible, complete medical records are an asset to the hospital, and they bring valve during a valuation. A. True B. False Answer: A. True...

What is the most common method for filing paper medical records?

What is the most common method for filing paper medical records? Answer: Alphabetica...

Who owns the radiographs of a pet?

Who owns the radiographs of a pet? Answer: The practice owns the radiographs, but copies can be made for owners at their request...

Does a client record belong to the client? Why or why not?

Does a client record belong to the client? Why or why not? Answer: No, the medical record does not belong to the client, as it is property of...

Why are discharge sheets vital?

Why are discharge sheets vital? Answer: Clients will not remember all of the information presented to them upon discharge of their pet. Information...

What items are mandatory in a medical record? Why?

What items are mandatory in a medical record? Why? Answer: -Owner's name -Patient's name -Patient's information -SOAP -Physical exam -Treatments:...

What is a SOAP progress note? Give an example of each part.

What is a SOAP progress note? Give an example of each part. Answer: SOAP is the format medical records should follow: Subjective, Objective,...

Why is history taking critical for medical record?

Why is history taking critical for medical record? Answer: The presenting complaint must be documented in the record. The history helps the...

What is the earliest that records can be shredded?

What is the earliest that records can be shredded? Answer: For most states, 3 years...

How often are medical records purged?

How often are medical records purged? Answer: State laws vary regarding the length of time medical records must be kept; most states require...

Why is legibility so important in medical records?

Why is legibility so important in medical records? Answer: Records must be legible so that team members may follow instructions for treatment...

Appointment lengths may vary for all of the following except:

Appointment lengths may vary for all of the following except: A. Specific client B. Appointment type C. Veterinarian D. Patient Answer: D....

Appointments should be set for:

Appointments should be set for: A. Client education B. Surgery/dental procedures C. Technicians D. All of the above E. None of the above Answer: A....

To help reduce client overload at the front desk, appointments should be:

To help reduce client overload at the front desk, appointments should be: A. Set every 15 minutes B. Staggered by at least 5 minutes C. None of the...

The longer a client waits to be seen for his appointment, the more likely:

The longer a client waits to be seen for his appointment, the more likely: A. Compliance will increase B. Compliance will decrease C. Compliance will...

The goals of an appointment system include which of the following?

The goals of an appointment system include which of the following? A. Maximize productivity B. Reduce staff tension C. Control traffic within the...

What information is vital when scheduling appointments?

What information is vital when scheduling appointments? Answer: Client's name, pet's name and species, problem to be seen for, and a phone number...

Why should walk-in clients be seen?

Why should walk-in clients be seen? Answer: Many clients feel that their pet is experiencing an emergency and cannot wait for the next available...

Specific clients always take longer for appointments. Why allot those specific clients more time than other clients?

Specific clients always take longer for appointments. Why allot those specific clients more time than other clients? Answer: Allotting more...

What factors affect appointment scheduling?

What factors affect appointment scheduling? Answer: Number of veterinarians working, appointments that can be scheduled for veterinary technicians,...

Explain how to handle clients who are always late for their appointments.

Explain how to handle clients who are always late for their appointments. Answer: They must be reminded in a kind manner what time their appointment...

Why should an appointment be established for client education?

Why should an appointment be established for client education? Answer: Client education can take a large amount of time, depending on the disease...

Why should veterinary clients strive for a proactive environment?

Why should veterinary clients strive for a proactive environment? Answer: Proactive environments take care of problems before they arise, ensuring...

What is the benefit of clients dropping off patients?

What is the benefit of clients dropping off patients? Answer: If an appointment time is not available and the pet needs to be seen, dropping...

How can clients be informed at the changes when a practice wants to implement an appointment system? Why create a positive atmosphere when making these changes?

How can clients be informed at the changes when a practice wants to implement an appointment system? Why create a positive atmosphere when making these...

Why should a veterinary practice implements an appointment system if one is not already in place?

Why should a veterinary practice implements an appointment system if one is not already in place? Answer: To help control the traffic flow within...

Which team member should present treatment plans to clients?

Which team member should present treatment plans to clients? A. Veterinarians B. Receptionists C. Veterinary technicians D. B and C Answer: D....

Client education should be available in which of the following forms?

Client education should be available in which of the following forms? A. Web page B. Printed materials C. Verbal education D. Models and videos E....

The percentage of clients who accept a recommendation is known as:

The percentage of clients who accept a recommendation is known as: A. Compliance B. Retention C. Turnover D. Quantity Answer: A. Complian...

If a listener revives a confusing message, which portion of the message will they rely on for a better understanding?

If a listener revives a confusing message, which portion of the message will they rely on for a better understanding? A. Verbal B. Paraverbal C. Nonverbal D....

The portion of a message that involves facial expressions is:

The portion of a message that involves facial expressions is: A. Verbal B. Paraverbal C. Nonverbal D. Written Answer: B. Paraverba...

How can individual verbal image be improved?

How can individual verbal image be improved? Answer: Verbal image can be improved by attending continuing education seminars and understanding...

Why are estimates important?

Why are estimates important? Answer: Estimates must be given to clients before procedures are done so that they are aware of the expense. Clients...

How can common barriers be overcome?

How can common barriers be overcome? Answer: Common barriers can be overcome in several ways. If a client has folded arms and refuses to accept...

How should an angry client be handled?

How should an angry client be handled? Answer: Angry clients should be placed in an exam room away from other clients. The team member addressing...

Why is body posture important?

Why is body posture important? Answer: Body posture communicates a positive, professional, and confident image...

What would be an appropriate body stance when addressing clients?

What would be an appropriate body stance when addressing clients? Answer: The head should be held up high, shoulders back, and arms at the side...

Create an example that can enhance client education.

Create an example that can enhance client education. Answer: Dental disease in pets can be seen clearly. Dental models can be shown to clients...

What are the benefits of a reminder system?

What are the benefits of a reminder system? Answer: Reminder systems automatically generate reminders for services or products that have been...

What is client compliance and how can it be achieved?

What is client compliance and how can it be achieved? Answer: Client compliance is defined as when clients accept recommendations from the team....

Why are verbal and written skills imperative in veterinary medicine?

Why are verbal and written skills imperative in veterinary medicine? Answer: Excellent verbal and written skills contribute to the overall professional...

What is the purpose of requiring owners to sign consent forms?

What is the purpose of requiring owners to sign consent forms? A. To ensure the owner is understanding of why they are leaving their pet B. To protect...

When should receptionists reconcile the transactions to ensure they are all correct?

When should receptionists reconcile the transactions to ensure they are all correct? A. Daily at the end of the day B. Weekly C. Daily at the beginning...

If the appointment schedule is full the receptionist should sat which of the following during a phone conversation?

If the appointment schedule is full the receptionist should sat which of the following during a phone conversation? A. Sorry Mrs. Jones, we are unable...

Which of the following is a proper phone introduction?

Which of the following is a proper phone introduction? A. Hello, this is Brooke, how can I help you? B. Good Morning, ABC Animal Clinic, this is Teresa....

How many components does the human voice contain?

How many components does the human voice contain? A. 2 B. 6 C. 4 D. 3 Answer: D. ...

Why should invoices be reviewed with clients, not just given to them?

Why should invoices be reviewed with clients, not just given to them? Answer: Clients must understand what they are paying for, and perceive...

How should a declined credit card be handled?

How should a declined credit card be handled? Answer: The client should be informed quietly and discreetly that the card was declined, and ask...

How can a phone shopper be turned into a client?

How can a phone shopper be turned into a client? Answer: Services should be detailed to phone shoppers over the phone; they must understand...

What information should not be given to clients over the phone?

What information should not be given to clients over the phone? Answer: Medical advic...

What makes the first impression on clients?

What makes the first impression on clients? Answer: The telephone call and receptionist, followed by the reception area when client arrives...

Why are health certificates required?

Why are health certificates required? Answer: To prevent the spread of disease...

What changes could improve each call?

What changes could improve each call? Answer: Speaking slowly, clearly, and in tones can improve the quality of any phone call...

What is the most efficient way (communication method) to ensure a common understanding by all participants on specific topics?

What is the most efficient way (communication method) to ensure a common understanding by all participants on specific topics? A. Interactive communication B....

What is formula to count total number of potential communication channels in one project?

What is formula to count total number of potential communication channels in one project? A. n(n + 1)/2 where n represents the number of stakeholders B....

The most effective means for communicating and resolving issues with stakeholders is .

The most effective means for communicating and resolving issues with stakeholders is . A. Status reports B. Electronic mail C. Telephone calls D....

The most likely result of communication blocked is that .

The most likely result of communication blocked is that . A. The project is delayed B. The trust level is enhanced C. Conflict occurs D. Senior management...

__ is one of Plan Communication Management tools & techniques.

__ is one of Plan Communication Management tools & techniques. A. Meetings B. Project database C. Expert Judgment D. Guessing Answer: ...

Communications Management Plan contains which of below information?

Communications Management Plan contains which of below information? A. Person responsible for coding, testing application B. Person responsible for...

Effective communication means .

Effective communication means . A. Information provided in right format, at anytime B. Information provided at the right time, with any templates C....

Project documents may be updated as a result of the Control Communications process. These updates may include .

Project documents may be updated as a result of the Control Communications process. These updates may include . A. Forecasts & Issue Log B. Forecasts...

The process often results in the need for adjustment, action, and intervention. As a result, change requests will be generated as an output.

The process often results in the need for adjustment, action, and intervention. As a result, change requests will be generated as an output. A. Plan...

Project meetings also include discussions & dialog with .

Project meetings also include discussions & dialog with . A. Suppliers, Vendors & other project Stakeholders B. Suppliers, Vendors C. Vendors...

Control Communication process could be done.

Control Communication process could be done. A. At planning stage B. In requirement phase C. On requests D. During project life cycle Answer:&n...

The key benefit of Control Communications process is that it ensures an flow among all , at any moment in time.

The key benefit of Control Communications process is that it ensures an flow among all , at any moment in time. A. Unlimited information, communication...

Which is project information managed & distributed using electronic communications management tool?

Which is project information managed & distributed using electronic communications management tool? A. Letters B. Memos C. Desk D. Websites ...

One of techniques & considerations for effective communications management is

One of techniques & considerations for effective communications management is  A. Talking techniques B. Listening techniques C. Yoga techniques D....

The key benefit of Manage Communications process is that it enables and communications flow between stakeholders.

The key benefit of Manage Communications process is that it enables and communications flow between stakeholders. A. Active, Passive B. Wrong, Right C....

Which is process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance to the communications management plan?

Which is process of creating, collecting, distributing, storing, retrieving, and the ultimate disposition of project information in accordance to the...

Noise includes any that might compromise the delivery of the message.

Noise includes any that might compromise the delivery of the message. A. Interference or barriers B. Conflicts C. Media & Noise D. Images A...

Factors that can affect the choice of communication technology include .

Factors that can affect the choice of communication technology include . A. Emotion of PM B. The weather C. The atmosphere D. Urgency of the need...

If the project manager wants to define Kcom coefficient out of range 0.8-11, what should he/she do?

If the project manager wants to define Kcom coefficient out of range 0.8-11, what should he/she do? A. Get approval from CDO B. Get approval from...

What is the Job Grade of P3 up employees?

What is the Job Grade of P3 up employees? A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 1.5 D. 2 Answer: ...

What is the default value of Kcom?

What is the default value of Kcom? A. 0.5 B. 1 C. 1.5 D. 2 Answer: ...

In some cases, the FSU Head couldn't define K Project, he should get approval from whom?

In some cases, the FSU Head couldn't define K Project, he should get approval from whom? A. CDO B. FSU QAM C. FSOFT QAM D. FSOFT Director Answe...

What are NOT management tasks?

What are NOT management tasks? A. Project Management B. Quality control C. Contract management D. Configuration management Answer: ...

What are the support tasks?

What are the support tasks? A. Prevention B. Correction C. Configuration management D. Both A & B are correct Answer: ...

What is the rule for informing the Task Management Team to project members?

What is the rule for informing the Task Management Team to project members? A. Deadline to define & inform to project team for the first time:...

How often does the Project Manager evaluate Discipline for employees?

How often does the Project Manager evaluate Discipline for employees? A. Daily or weekly maximum B. Weekly or monthly maximum C. Weekly D. No rule...

How to pay FS coin when the employees who joined the project are paid an annually fixed income(13 month/year)?

How to pay FS coin when the employees who joined the project are paid an annually fixed income(13 month/year)? A. This Coin is used to evaluate employees'...

What is the Job Grade of P2 employees?

What is the Job Grade of P2 employees? A. 0.3 B. 0.5 C. 0.7 D. 1 Answer: ...

What does fTM stand for?

What does fTM stand for? A. Coefficient of Task complexity B. Compliance rate by process Task Management C. Coefficient of Task Management compliance D....

What does kT stand for?

What does kT stand for? A. Coefficient of Task Management compliance B. Coefficient of Time management C. Coefficient of Task complexity D. None of...

Excess bags of basic commodities such as flour and sugar that are stored in a restaurant's kitchen represent which of the following wastes?

Excess bags of basic commodities such as flour and sugar that are stored in a restaurant's kitchen represent which of the following wastes? A) overproduction B)...

Which of the following is characteristic of lean operations?

Which of the following is characteristic of lean operations? A) inventory buffers between each workstation to minimize system downtime B) easy, mindless...

Lean operations are known for their:

Lean operations are known for their: A) employee development. B) supplier education. C) supplier partnerships. D) challenging jobs. E) All of the...

Which of the following is NOT an attribute of lean operations?

Which of the following is NOT an attribute of lean operations? A) eliminating almost all inventory through just-in-time techniques B) minimizing space...

Which of the following is not characteristic of a TPS employee?

Which of the following is not characteristic of a TPS employee? A) knowledgeable B) strict job classifications C) know more about their job than anyone...

Which of the following is an illustration of employee empowerment?

Which of the following is an illustration of employee empowerment? A) UPS drivers are trained to perform several motions smoothly and efficiently. B)...

A manufacturer took the following actions to reduce inventory. Which of these is generally not accepted as a JIT action?

A manufacturer took the following actions to reduce inventory. Which of these is generally not accepted as a JIT action? A) It used a pull system...

Great Lakes Barge and Baggage Company makes, among other things, battery-operated bilge pumps. Which of the following activities is NOT part of JIT? They:

Great Lakes Barge and Baggage Company makes, among other things, battery-operated bilge pumps. Which of the following activities is NOT part of JIT?...

JIT makes quality cheaper because:

JIT makes quality cheaper because: A) the cost of low quality can be hidden as inventory cost. B) JIT adds more buffers to the system. C) JIT prevents...

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the links between JIT and quality?

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the links between JIT and quality? A) Inventory hides bad quality; JIT immediately exposes it. B) JIT reduces...

A grocery store is attempting to implement a kanban system. Which of the following would not be an application of kanbans?

A grocery store is attempting to implement a kanban system. Which of the following would not be an application of kanbans? A) An empty doughnut tray...

Lead time for computers is 5 days with daily demand of 25 and safety stock of 5 computers. If management wants to use 10 kanbans how many computers should each one hold?

Lead time for computers is 5 days with daily demand of 25 and safety stock of 5 computers. If management wants to use 10 kanbans how many computers...

Lead time for computers is 7 days with daily demand of 5 computers and a safety stock of 1 day. Each kanban holds 8 computers. What is the correct number of kanbans?

Lead time for computers is 7 days with daily demand of 5 computers and a safety stock of 1 day. Each kanban holds 8 computers. What is the correct number...

The cook in a fast-food restaurant knows that 2 hamburger patties and an order of fries should be started for each car that is waiting in line. This is best an example of:

The cook in a fast-food restaurant knows that 2 hamburger patties and an order of fries should be started for each car that is waiting in line. This...

Lead time for cakes is 2 days with daily demand of 10 cakes and a safety stock of ½ a day. Each container (kanban) holds 1 cake. What is the correct number of kanbans?

Lead time for cakes is 2 days with daily demand of 10 cakes and a safety stock of ½ a day. Each container (kanban) holds 1 cake. What is the correct...

The number of kanbans should be equal to which of the following?

The number of kanbans should be equal to which of the following? A) one B) the ratio of (demand during lead time + safety stock) to container size C)...

Which one of the following scenarios represents the use of a kanban to reduce inventories?

Which one of the following scenarios represents the use of a kanban to reduce inventories? A) A supervisor tells the operators to stay busy and start...

What does the Japanese word "kanban" mean?

What does the Japanese word "kanban" mean? A) low inventory B) employee empowerment C) card D) continuous improvement E) lot size of one Answer...

Kanban is associated with all EXCEPT which of the following?

Kanban is associated with all EXCEPT which of the following? A) small lot sizes B) signals, such as cards, lights, or flags C) moving inventory only...

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about the kanban system?

Which one of the following statements is TRUE about the kanban system? A) The quantities in the containers are usually large to reduce setup costs. B)...

If a factory wants to cut its current lot size in half, by what proportion must setup cost change?

If a factory wants to cut its current lot size in half, by what proportion must setup cost change? A) Setup cost must be cut to one fourth its current...

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the steps to reducing setup times?

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the steps to reducing setup times? A) The first step involves performing as much setup preparation as possible...

A product has annual demand of 100,000 units. The plant manager wants production to follow a four-hour cycle. Based on the following data, what setup cost will enable the desired production cycle?

A product has annual demand of 100,000 units. The plant manager wants production to follow a four-hour cycle. Based on the following data, what setup...

A firm wants to develop a level material use schedule based on the following data. What should be the setup cost?

A firm wants to develop a level material use schedule based on the following data. What should be the setup cost? Desired lot size: 60 Annual demand: 40,000 Holding...

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding JIT inventory?

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding JIT inventory? A) It exists just in case something goes wrong. B) It is the minimum inventory...

Who is credited with coining the phrase, "Inventory is evil"?

Who is credited with coining the phrase, "Inventory is evil"? A) Poka Yoke B) Pat "Keiretsu" Morita C) Kanban Polka D) Shigeo Shingo E) Taiichi O...

Which one of the following is NOT a layout tactic in a JIT environment?

Which one of the following is NOT a layout tactic in a JIT environment? A) work cells for families of products B) fixed equipment C) minimizing distance D)...

Just-in-time systems make demands on layouts, including the need for:

Just-in-time systems make demands on layouts, including the need for: A) distance reduction. B) increased flexibility. C) reduced space and inventory. D)...

Which of the following is NOT a concern of suppliers as they prepare to enter into JIT partnerships?

Which of the following is NOT a concern of suppliers as they prepare to enter into JIT partnerships? A) Suppliers feel that they would be less at...

In JIT partnerships, suppliers have several concerns. Which of the following is NOT such a concern?

In JIT partnerships, suppliers have several concerns. Which of the following is NOT such a concern? A) desire for diversification B) poor customer...

How can a reduction of in-transit inventory be encouraged?

How can a reduction of in-transit inventory be encouraged? A) supplier location near plants B) high setup costs C) low carrying costs D) use of trains,...

Which one of the following is a concern expressed by suppliers in JIT partnerships?

Which one of the following is a concern expressed by suppliers in JIT partnerships? A) having too many customers B) delivery to the point of use C)...

Which of the following is NOT a goal of JIT partnerships?

Which of the following is NOT a goal of JIT partnerships? A) removal of unnecessary activities B) removal of in-plant inventory C) removal of in-transit...

Which of the following is not a goal of JIT partnerships?

Which of the following is not a goal of JIT partnerships? A) removal of unnecessary activities B) removal of in-plant inventory C) removal of in-transit...

Characteristics of just-in-time partnerships do NOT include:

Characteristics of just-in-time partnerships do NOT include: A) removal of in-transit inventory. B) large lot sizes to save on setup costs and to...

Which one of the following is a characteristic of a JIT partnership?

Which one of the following is a characteristic of a JIT partnership? A) third-party logistics never used B) maximal product specifications imposed...

If the goals of JIT partnerships are met, which of the following is a result?

If the goals of JIT partnerships are met, which of the following is a result? A) For incoming goods, receiving activity and inspection are outsourced. B)...

Which one of the following is not a benefit of JIT implementation?

Which one of the following is not a benefit of JIT implementation? A) cost reduction B) variability increase C) rapid throughput D) quality improvement E)...

Concerning relationships with suppliers, which of the following combinations is critical to the success of JIT?

Concerning relationships with suppliers, which of the following combinations is critical to the success of JIT? A) close relationships with trust B)...

The list of 5Ss, although it looks like a housekeeping directive, supports lean production by:

The list of 5Ss, although it looks like a housekeeping directive, supports lean production by: A) identifying non-value items and removing them, in...

The 5Ss:

The 5Ss: A) have the "flavor" of a housekeeping list. B) are a checklist for lean operations. C) have become a list of seven items in American practice. D)...

Which of the following is NOT one of the Seven Wastes?

Which of the following is NOT one of the Seven Wastes? A) overproduction B) transportation C) assignment D) defective product E) motion Answer:...

Which of the following is specifically characterized by the elimination of waste through a focus on exactly what the customer wants?

Which of the following is specifically characterized by the elimination of waste through a focus on exactly what the customer wants? A) Just-in-time...

Manufacturing cycle time is best defined as the:

Manufacturing cycle time is best defined as the: A) length of the work shift, expressed in minutes per day. B) time it takes a unit to move from one...

Which of the following statements regarding a pull system is TRUE?

Which of the following statements regarding a pull system is TRUE? A) Large lots are pulled from upstream stations. B) Work is pulled to the downstream...

Which of the following is specifically characterized by continuous and forced problem solving via a focus on throughput and reduced inventory?

Which of the following is specifically characterized by continuous and forced problem solving via a focus on throughput and reduced inventory? A)...

Which of the following is specifically characterized by a focus on continuous improvement, respect for people, and standard work practices?

Which of the following is specifically characterized by a focus on continuous improvement, respect for people, and standard work practices? A) Just-in-time...

Which of the following is NOT a source of variability?

Which of the following is NOT a source of variability? A) Employees, machines, and suppliers produce units late. B) Customer demand is unknown. C)...

Which of the following is generally found in most lean environments?

Which of the following is generally found in most lean environments? A) a push or pull system, depending upon the rate of demand B) a push system...

What does TPS stand for?

What does TPS stand for? A) Total Production Streamlining B) Toyota Production System C) Taguchi's Production S's D) Total Process Simplification E)...

An advantage of the fixed-period inventory system is that:

An advantage of the fixed-period inventory system is that: A) safety stock will be lower than it would be under a fixed-quantity inventory system. B)...

Which of the following should be higher in P systems than Q systems?

Which of the following should be higher in P systems than Q systems? A) lead time B) demand C) order size D) order spacing E) safety stock Answ...

Q is to ________ systems as P is to ________ systems.

Q is to ________ systems as P is to ________ systems. A) fixed quantity, fixed period B) variable demand, constant demand C) variable lead time, variable...

Which of the following is a requirement of Q systems?

Which of the following is a requirement of Q systems? A) perpetual inventory system B) constant order spacing C) variable lead time D) constant demand E)...

What is the difference between P and Q inventory systems?

What is the difference between P and Q inventory systems? A) order size B) order spacing C) maximum service level D) lead time length E) A and B ...

A disadvantage of the fixed-period inventory system is that:

A disadvantage of the fixed-period inventory system is that: A) it involves higher ordering costs than the fixed quantity inventory system. B) additional...

The fixed-period inventory system requires more safety stock than a fixed-quantity system because:

The fixed-period inventory system requires more safety stock than a fixed-quantity system because: A) a stockout can occur during the review period...

A bakery wants to determine how many trays of doughnuts it should prepare each day. Demand is normal with a mean of 5 trays and standard deviation of 1 tray. If the owner wants a service level of at least 95%, how many trays should he prepare (rounded to the nearest whole tray)? Assume doughnuts have no salvage value after the day is complete.

A bakery wants to determine how many trays of doughnuts it should prepare each day. Demand is normal with a mean of 5 trays and standard deviation of...

Service level is:

Service level is: A) the probability of stocking out. B) the probability of not stocking out. C) something that should be minimized in retail. D)...

Suppose that papers for a newspaper stand cost $0.40 and sell for $0.80. They currently have no salvage value. If the stand owner is able to find an outlet that would provide a salvage value of $0.10, what would be the increase in service level?

Suppose that papers for a newspaper stand cost $0.40 and sell for $0.80. They currently have no salvage value. If the stand owner is able to find an...

A local club is selling Christmas trees and deciding how many to stock for the month of December. If demand is normally distributed with a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 20, trees have no salvage value at the end of the month, trees cost $20, and trees sell for $50 what is the service level?

A local club is selling Christmas trees and deciding how many to stock for the month of December. If demand is normally distributed with a mean of 100...

The main trait of a single-period model is that:

The main trait of a single-period model is that: A) inventory has limited value after a certain period of time. B) it has the largest EOQ sizes. C)...

Which of the following items is mostly likely managed using a single-period order model?

Which of the following items is mostly likely managed using a single-period order model? A) Christmas trees B) canned food at the grocery store C)...

In a safety stock problem where both demand and lead time are variable, demand averages 150 units per day with a daily standard deviation of 16, and lead time averages 5 days with a standard deviation of 1 day. What is the standard deviation of demand during lead time?

In a safety stock problem where both demand and lead time are variable, demand averages 150 units per day with a daily standard deviation of 16, and...

If daily demand is constant at 10 units per day, and lead time averages 12 days with a standard deviation of 3 days, 95 percent service requires how much safety stock?

If daily demand is constant at 10 units per day, and lead time averages 12 days with a standard deviation of 3 days, 95 percent service requires how...

If daily demand is normally distributed with a mean of 15 and standard deviation of 5, and lead time is constant at 4 days, a 90 percent service level will require how much safety stock?

If daily demand is normally distributed with a mean of 15 and standard deviation of 5, and lead time is constant at 4 days, a 90 percent service level...

If demand is not uniform and constant, then stockout risks can be controlled by:

If demand is not uniform and constant, then stockout risks can be controlled by: A) increasing the EOQ. B) spreading annual demand over more frequent,...

The proper quantity of safety stock is typically determined by:

The proper quantity of safety stock is typically determined by: A) using a single-period model. B) carrying sufficient safety stock so as to eliminate...

The purpose of safety stock is to:

The purpose of safety stock is to: A) replace failed units with good ones. B) eliminate the possibility of a stockout. C) eliminate the likelihood...

Demand for dishwasher water pumps is 8 per day. The standard deviation of demand is 3 per day, and the order lead time is four days. The service level is 95%. What should the reorder point be?

Demand for dishwasher water pumps is 8 per day. The standard deviation of demand is 3 per day, and the order lead time is four days. The service level...

A specific product has demand during lead time of 100 units, with a standard deviation during lead time of 25 units. What safety stock (approximately) provides a 95% service level?

A specific product has demand during lead time of 100 units, with a standard deviation during lead time of 25 units. What safety stock (approximately)...

If the standard deviation of demand is six per week, demand is 50 per week, and the desired service level is 95%, approximately what is the statistical safety stock?

If the standard deviation of demand is six per week, demand is 50 per week, and the desired service level is 95%, approximately what is the statistical...

Which of the following statements about quantity discounts is FALSE?

Which of the following statements about quantity discounts is FALSE? A) The cost-minimizing solution may or may not be where annual holding costs...

When quantity discounts are allowed, the cost-minimizing order quantity:

When quantity discounts are allowed, the cost-minimizing order quantity: A) is always an EOQ quantity. B) minimizes the sum of holding and ordering...

A production order quantity problem has a daily demand rate = 10 and a daily production rate = 50. The production order quantity for this problem is approximately 612 units. What is the average inventory for this problem?

A production order quantity problem has a daily demand rate = 10 and a daily production rate = 50. The production order quantity for this problem is...

The assumptions of the production order quantity model are met in a situation where annual demand is 3650 units, setup cost is $50, holding cost is $12 per unit per year, the daily demand rate is 10 and the daily production rate is 100. What is the production order quantity for this problem?

The assumptions of the production order quantity model are met in a situation where annual demand is 3650 units, setup cost is $50, holding cost is...

Which of these statements about the production order quantity model is FALSE?

Which of these statements about the production order quantity model is FALSE? A) The production order quantity model is appropriate when the assumptions...

Which of the following statements regarding the production order quantity model is TRUE?

Which of the following statements regarding the production order quantity model is TRUE? A) It applies only to items produced in the firm's own production...

An inventory decision rule states, "When the inventory level goes down to 14 gearboxes, 100 gearboxes will be ordered." Which of the following statements is TRUE?

An inventory decision rule states, "When the inventory level goes down to 14 gearboxes, 100 gearboxes will be ordered." Which of the following statements...

Which of the following statements regarding the reorder point is TRUE?

Which of the following statements regarding the reorder point is TRUE? A) The reorder point is that quantity that triggers an action to restock an...

A product has a demand of 4000 units per year. Ordering cost is $20, and holding cost is $4 per unit per year. The cost-minimizing solution for this product is to order:

A product has a demand of 4000 units per year. Ordering cost is $20, and holding cost is $4 per unit per year. The cost-minimizing solution for this...

A product has a demand of 4000 units per year. Ordering cost is $20, and holding cost is $4 per unit per year. The EOQ model is appropriate. The cost-minimizing solution for this product will cost ________ per year in total annual inventory (holding and setup) costs.

A product has a demand of 4000 units per year. Ordering cost is $20, and holding cost is $4 per unit per year. The EOQ model is appropriate. The cost-minimizing...

For a certain item, the cost-minimizing order quantity obtained with the basic EOQ model is 200 units, and the total annual inventory (carrying and setup) cost is $600. What is the inventory carrying cost per unit per year for this item?

For a certain item, the cost-minimizing order quantity obtained with the basic EOQ model is 200 units, and the total annual inventory (carrying and...

A product whose EOQ is 400 units experiences a 50% increase in demand. The new EOQ is:

A product whose EOQ is 400 units experiences a 50% increase in demand. The new EOQ is: A) unchanged. B) increased by less than 50%. C) increased by...

A product whose EOQ is 40 units experiences a decrease in ordering cost from $90 per order to $10 per order. The revised EOQ is:

A product whose EOQ is 40 units experiences a decrease in ordering cost from $90 per order to $10 per order. The revised EOQ is: A) three times as...

Which of the following statements about the basic EOQ model is FALSE?

Which of the following statements about the basic EOQ model is FALSE? A) If the setup cost were to decrease, the EOQ would fall. B) If annual demand...

Which of the following statements about the basic EOQ model is TRUE?

Which of the following statements about the basic EOQ model is TRUE? A) If the ordering cost were to double, the EOQ would rise. B) If annual demand...

In the basic EOQ model, if D = 6000 per year, S = $100, and holding cost = $5 per unit per month, what is the economic order quantity?

In the basic EOQ model, if D = 6000 per year, S = $100, and holding cost = $5 per unit per month, what is the economic order quantity? A) 24 B) 100 C)...

In the basic EOQ model, if the cost of placing an order doubles, and all other values remain constant, the EOQ will:

In the basic EOQ model, if the cost of placing an order doubles, and all other values remain constant, the EOQ will: A) increase by about 41%. B)...

Most inventory models attempt to minimize:

Most inventory models attempt to minimize: A) the likelihood of a stockout. B) the number of items ordered. C) total inventory-based costs. D) the...

A certain type of computer costs $1,000, and the annual holding cost is 25% of the value of the item. Annual demand is 10,000 units, and the order cost is $150 per order. What is the approximate economic order quantity?

A certain type of computer costs $1,000, and the annual holding cost is 25% of the value of the item. Annual demand is 10,000 units, and the order cost...

If the actual order quantity is the economic order quantity in a problem that meets the assumptions of the economic order quantity model shown below, the average amount of inventory on hand:

If the actual order quantity is the economic order quantity in a problem that meets the assumptions of the economic order quantity model shown below,...

What is the primary purpose of the basic economic order quantity model shown below?

What is the primary purpose of the basic economic order quantity model shown below? Q* = sqrt 2DS/H A) to calculate the reorder point, so that replenishments...

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the economic order quantity model shown below?

Which of the following is NOT an assumption of the economic order quantity model shown below? Q* = sqrt 2DS/H A) Demand is known, constant, and independent. B)...

The two most basic inventory questions answered by the typical inventory model are:

The two most basic inventory questions answered by the typical inventory model are: A) timing of orders and cost of orders. B) order quantity and...

Which category of inventory holding costs has a much higher percentage than average for rapid-change industries such as PCs and cell phones?

Which category of inventory holding costs has a much higher percentage than average for rapid-change industries such as PCs and cell phones? A) housing...

Which of the following is an element of inventory holding costs?

Which of the following is an element of inventory holding costs? A) housing costs B) material handling costs C) investment costs D) pilferage, scrap,...

Among the advantages of cycle counting is that it:

Among the advantages of cycle counting is that it: A) makes the annual physical inventory more acceptable to management. B) does not require the detailed...

Which of the following statements regarding control of service inventories is TRUE?

Which of the following statements regarding control of service inventories is TRUE? A) Service inventory is a fictional concept, because services...

Cycle counting:

Cycle counting: A) is a process by which inventory records are verified once a year. B) eliminates annual inventory adjustments. C) provides a measure...

ABC analysis divides on-hand inventory into three classes, generally based upon which of the following?

ABC analysis divides on-hand inventory into three classes, generally based upon which of the following? A) item quality B) unit price C) the number...

ABC analysis is based upon the principle that:

ABC analysis is based upon the principle that: A) all items in inventory must be monitored very closely. B) there are usually a few critical items,...

All EXCEPT which of the following statements about ABC analysis are true?

All EXCEPT which of the following statements about ABC analysis are true? A) In ABC analysis, inventory may be categorized by measures other than...

Which of the following statements about ABC analysis is FALSE?

Which of the following statements about ABC analysis is FALSE? A) ABC analysis is based on the presumption that controlling the few most important...

Which of the following is NOT one of the four main types of inventory?

Which of the following is NOT one of the four main types of inventory? A) raw material inventory B) work-in-process inventory C) maintenance/repair/operating...

Which of the following would NOT generally be a motive for a firm to hold inventories?

Which of the following would NOT generally be a motive for a firm to hold inventories? A) to decouple various parts of the production process B) to...

Which of the following is a function of inventory?

Which of the following is a function of inventory? A) to decouple various parts of the production process B) to provide a selection of goods for anticipated...

Which of the following statements regarding Amazon.com is FALSE?

Which of the following statements regarding Amazon.com is FALSE? A) The company was opened by Jeff Bezos in 1995. B) The company was founded as, and...

Outsourcing:

Outsourcing: A) transfers traditional internal activities to outside vendors. B) utilizes the efficiency that comes with specialization. C) allows...

Which of the following is NOT one of the five parts of the Supply Chain Operations Reference (SCOR) model?

Which of the following is NOT one of the five parts of the Supply Chain Operations Reference (SCOR) model? A) Make B) Sell C) Plan D) Source E) R...

Consider a firm with an annual net income of $20 million, revenue of $60 million and cost of goods sold of $25 million. If the balance sheet amounts show $2 million of inventory and $500,000 of property, plant & equipment, how many weeks of supply does the firm hold?

Consider a firm with an annual net income of $20 million, revenue of $60 million and cost of goods sold of $25 million. If the balance sheet amounts...

Consider a firm with an annual net income of $20 million, revenue of $60 million and cost of goods sold of $25 million. If the balance sheet amounts show $2 million of inventory and $500,000 of property, plant & equipment, what is the inventory turnover?

Consider a firm with an annual net income of $20 million, revenue of $60 million and cost of goods sold of $25 million. If the balance sheet amounts...