Generally speaking, I can use an SPSS dataset or any adequately equipped dataset for the following:
A) To answer research questions
B) To answer...
This course is designed to provide me with:
This course is designed to provide me with:
A) A warm place to sleep
B) A warm place to learn
C) A few skills I didn't have before
D) A more in depth...
Research intended for a general, or government audience would/could be circulated:
Research intended for a general, or government audience would/could be circulated:
A) Generally to an academic community for an academic purpose, but...
Research intended for an academic audience would be circulated:
Research intended for an academic audience would be circulated:
A) Generally to an academic community for an academic purpose, but could be accessed...
Research in a law enforcement context is considered useful because:
Research in a law enforcement context is considered useful because:
A) It cannot provide answers to better understand any aspect of law enforcement;...
Accessing both Statistics Canada (downloading data), and surveying residents of a community for the same research purpose is considered:
Accessing both Statistics Canada (downloading data), and surveying residents of a community for the same research purpose is considered:
A) The best...
Accessing Statistics Canada and downloading data for research is considered:
Accessing Statistics Canada and downloading data for research is considered:
A) Secondary research
B) Primary research
C) Lame research
D) Useful research
E)...
Surveying a community regarding their opinion of a police department's performance is considered:
Surveying a community regarding their opinion of a police department's performance is considered:
A) Secondary research
B) Primary research
C) Lame...
The three biggest "road bumps" to effective knowledge translation are:
The three biggest "road bumps" to effective knowledge translation are:
A) Organization, wording & clarity
B) Organizations, world views & clarity
C)...
Common "road bumps" to effective knowledge translation are:
Common "road bumps" to effective knowledge translation are:
A) Assumptions, Attitudes, Receptiveness, Tiredness, Learning disabilities, Confirmation...
Generally speaking, retrieving primary data is considered:
Generally speaking, retrieving primary data is considered:
A) Entirely more desirable than retrieving secondary data
B) Costly
C) More specific
D)...
Generally speaking, retrieving secondary data is considered:
Generally speaking, retrieving secondary data is considered:
A) More desirable than retrieving primary source data
B) Costly
C) More specific
D)...
Quantitative methods generally include:
Quantitative methods generally include:
A) Surveys, electronic raw data, raw file data
B) Phone interviews, raw conversations
C) Interviews of any...
Qualitative methods generally include:
Qualitative methods generally include:
A) Interviews of participants which generate text based responses as opposed to numeric responses
B) Surveys...
In research, coding generally refers to:
In research, coding generally refers to:
A) Computer coding systems
B) Hyper Text Mark-up Language (HTML)
C) Adding numeric codes or values to numbers...
The reason we need to articulate our research simply and clearly is:
The reason we need to articulate our research simply and clearly is:
A) It helps get the research published
B) It is beneficial to many other people
C)...
A Likert Scale survey question would most resemble the following:
A Likert Scale survey question would most resemble the following:
A) My degree program was beneficial.
a. Disagree----somewhat agree----mostly agree--------Agree
B)...
The general elements of a research report include:
The general elements of a research report include:
A) Front cover, general content, conclusion & appendix
B) Title page, index, content, results,...
Primary source data is generally retrieved from:
Primary source data is generally retrieved from:
A) Statistics Canada or Open Data portals
B) The Primary Data Agency Network of Canada
C) Abbotsford...
Secondary source data is generally retrieved from:
Secondary source data is generally retrieved from:
A) Magazines and friends
B) Statistics Canada, and or other data warehouses
C) Research reports
D)...
If you took the same test and received the same score on each of the instances the instrument (test) would be considered:
If you took the same test and received the same score on each of the instances the instrument (test) would be considered:
A) Reliable
B) Valid
C)...
If you stood on the scale five times and received five different weight calculations, the instrument (the scale or instrument) would be considered:
If you stood on the scale five times and received five different weight calculations, the instrument (the scale or instrument) would be considered:
A)...
Data can be entered into SPSS manually or be imported from a file. The data comes from:
Data can be entered into SPSS manually or be imported from a file. The data comes from:
A) A questionnaire
B) A telephone survey
C) An internet survey
D)...
Which of the following variables would be considered dependent if the hypothesis was "As people get older, their religious participation increases":
Which of the following variables would be considered dependent if the hypothesis was "As people get older, their religious participation increases":
A)...
Which of the following variables would be considered independent if the hypothesis was "As people get older, their religious participation increases":
Which of the following variables would be considered independent if the hypothesis was "As people get older, their religious participation increases":
A)...
Which of the following is a hypotheses:
Which of the following is a hypotheses:
A) The more coffee people drink, the more they will become addicted to caffeine
B) As people drink more coffee,...
The software program that will be used in this class is called SPSS. What was the original full name of SPSS:
The software program that will be used in this class is called SPSS. What was the original full name of SPSS:
A) Statistical Package for the Social...
Value labels are:
Value labels are:
A) Used to identify categories represented by values
B) Used to identify categories represented by variables
C) Used to identify...
Missing data is considered:
Missing data is considered:
A) A term that refers to respondents who were not asked that particular question
B) A term that refers to data that was...
A sampling error is considered as:
A sampling error is considered as:
A) As the extent to which the responses of those sampled differ as a result of a poor question
B) As the extent...
Reliability in social science research:
Reliability in social science research:
A) Refers to the quality of a measuring instrument that would cause it to report the same value in successive...
Primary research is considered as:
Primary research is considered as:
A) Developing your own theory and then trying to prove its validity.
B) Deriving a concept from a proven theory.
C)...
In social science research, validity is:
In social science research, validity is:
A) A theory that has been proven.
B) A concept that has been proven.
C) A hypothesis that has been proven.
D)...
An independent variable is:
An independent variable is:
A) The variable that is independent on the theory.
B) The variable that is independent on the hypothesis.
C) The variable...
A dependent variable is:
A dependent variable is:
A) The variable you are trying to explain.
B) The variable that is dependent on the theory.
C) The variable that is dependent...
A hypothesis is:
A hypothesis is:
A) A supposition or proposed explanation made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigation.
B) A...
Variables are:
Variables are:
A) Placeholders for where the data will be entered.
B) Answers to the hypothesis.
C) Empirical indicators of the concepts we are researching.
D)...
A theory is:
A theory is:
A) A statement or set of statements describing the relationships among concepts.
B) An answer describing the relationships among concepts.
C)...
A primary goal of social scientific research is to examine:
A primary goal of social scientific research is to examine:
A) Various acceptable social etiquette in today's world and then develop them into theories...
Much of the social scientist's work involves:
Much of the social scientist's work involves:
A) Comparing social relationships in social theories to empirically observed relationships among social...
What areas should be considered to be included in a Process Improvement Plan?
What areas should be considered to be included in a Process Improvement Plan?
A. Targets for improved performance
B. WBS and WBS dictionary
C. Coding...
What is the tool and technique involved in choosing part of population for inspection?
What is the tool and technique involved in choosing part of population for inspection?
A. Benchmarking
B. Cost-Benefit Analysis
C. Statistical Sampling
D....
"What is the common point between Histogram and Pareto chart?"
"What is the common point between Histogram and Pareto chart?"
A. It considers the influence of time
B. It is a special form of bar chart
C. It describes...
Which of the following is an example of checksheets?
Which of the following is an example of checksheets?
A. Severity of defects
B. Frequency of defects
C. Priority of defects
D. Category of defect...
What are Checksheets also known as?
What are Checksheets also known as?
A. Ask sheets
B. Question sheets
C. Tally sheets
D. Spreadsheets"
Answer: ...
When is a process considered out of control?
When is a process considered out of control?
A. A data point exceeds a control limit
B. Seven consecutive plot points are above the mean
C. Seven...
You are using a control chart to analyze defects, when something on the chart causes you to realize that you have a serious quality problem. What is the MOST likely reason for this?
You are using a control chart to analyze defects, when something on the chart causes you to realize that you have a serious quality problem. What is...
Which of the following are referred to as process maps?
Which of the following are referred to as process maps?
A. Control charts
B. Flowcharts
C. Histograms
D. Scatter diagrams"
Answer: ...
What is WRONG with Quality audit?
What is WRONG with Quality audit?
A. It may be scheduled or random
B. It may be conducted by external auditors
C. It may be conducted by internal...
Quality Audit is a structured, independent process to .
Quality Audit is a structured, independent process to .
A. Determine process compliance
B. Detect the problems caused by project team
C. Identify...
Which of the following is NOT the cost of conformance?
Which of the following is NOT the cost of conformance?
A. Testing
B. Inspection
C. Training
D. Warranty work"
Answer: ...
"Which of these is NOT a tool & technique of Perform Quality Assurance?"
"Which of these is NOT a tool & technique of Perform Quality Assurance?"
A. Quality audits
B. Inspection
C. Process analysis
D. Matrix diagra...
What is the purpose of Quality Audits?
What is the purpose of Quality Audits?
A. Identifying the best practices
B. Identifying the nonconformity
C. Supporting improvement in process implementation
D....
The manager asks you to compare the cost of quality to the expected benefit. Which of the following tools should you use?
The manager asks you to compare the cost of quality to the expected benefit. Which of the following tools should you use?
A. Cost Benefit Analysis
B....
You're working with an audit team to check that your company's projects all meet the same quality standards. What process is being performed?
You're working with an audit team to check that your company's projects all meet the same quality standards. What process is being performed?
A. Perform...
What is TRUE about Inspection?
What is TRUE about Inspection?
A. Keeping errors out of the process
B. Keeping errors out of the hands of the customer
C. Keeping errors out of the...
Which of the following is NOT used to find the root causes of a problem?
Which of the following is NOT used to find the root causes of a problem?
A. Cause-and-effect diagrams
B. Ishikawa diagrams
C. Histograms
D. Fishbone...
A project manager is creating a component- specific tool to verify that a set of required steps have been performed. What is the tool called?
A project manager is creating a component- specific tool to verify that a set of required steps have been performed. What is the tool called?
A....
Which of the following is an example of cost of quality?
Which of the following is an example of cost of quality?
A. Inspecting your product to be sure that it meets requirements.
B. Reviewing documents...
What are the common tools and techniques that are used for both Plan Quality Management and Control Quality?
What are the common tools and techniques that are used for both Plan Quality Management and Control Quality?
A. Inspections
B. Benchmarking
C. Cost-Benefit...
"80% of the problems are due to 20% of the causes, also called as 80/20 principle, is a concept of."
"80% of the problems are due to 20% of the causes, also called as 80/20 principle, is a concept of."
A. Edward Deming
B. Philip Crosby
C. Pareto
D....
What is the benefit of continuous process improvement?
What is the benefit of continuous process improvement?
A. Remove activities that do not add value
B. Remove activities related to processes
C. Remove...
" indicates the degree to which a particular product or service meets requirements, while indicates a category or rank used to distinguish that item from other similar items."
" indicates the degree to which a particular product or service meets requirements, while indicates a category or rank used to distinguish that item...
Warranty cost is an example of .
Warranty cost is an example of .
A. Appraisal cost
B. Service cost
C. Correction cost
D. Failure cost"
Answer: D...
"Prevention costs include all of the following EXCEPT ."
"Prevention costs include all of the following EXCEPT ."
A. Have team members get professional certifications
B. Collect lessons learnt & best...
The applications being built by your programming team have lots of bugs. So, you write up coding standards that will guide everyone in building the product with more attention to quality. Which of the following activity precisely describes this?
The applications being built by your programming team have lots of bugs. So, you write up coding standards that will guide everyone in building the...
You are managing a project that uses the toughest design pattern. Your technical architect analyzes a problem and she uses an Ishikawa diagram to figure out the root cause of a defect. Which process is being performed?
You are managing a project that uses the toughest design pattern. Your technical architect analyzes a problem and she uses an Ishikawa diagram to figure...
Which of the following is NOT an example of COQ?
Which of the following is NOT an example of COQ?
A. Spend more time in studying coding standards and design pattern
B. Request TQA to inspect the...
What is NOT another name of Inspections?
What is NOT another name of Inspections?
A. Audit
B. Gothrough
C. Peer Review
D. Walkthrough"
Answer: ...
"Quality Assurance should be performed."
"Quality Assurance should be performed."
A. During the creation of the project proposal
B. During the project design phase
C. During the project...
Which of the following is considered as a cost of prevention?
Which of the following is considered as a cost of prevention?
A. Testing efforts
B. Rework efforts
C. Inspection efforts
D. Efforts for collecting...
Based on the company's PCB (Process Capability Baseline), the upper and lower limits of CSS metric is 80-85-90. What is it known as?
Based on the company's PCB (Process Capability Baseline), the upper and lower limits of CSS metric is 80-85-90. What is it known as?
A. Process limits
B....
What is CORRECT about the upper and lower specification limits?
What is CORRECT about the upper and lower specification limits?
A. They are based on requirements of agreement
B. They are based on standard statistical...
What statement is TRUE?
What statement is TRUE?
A. Control limits are not different from specification limits
B. Control limits are different from specification limits
C....
What is CORRECT about ISO 9000?
What is CORRECT about ISO 9000?
A. ISO 9000 is an organizational project management maturity model
B. ISO 9000 is an international standard for project...
Which of the following is considered a cost of prevention?
Which of the following is considered a cost of prevention?
A. Re-work costs
B. Training costs
C. Testing costs
D. Costs of design reviews"
An...
"Which of the following is not included in the Human Resource Management Plan"
"Which of the following is not included in the Human Resource Management Plan"
A. Staffing management plan
B. Project organization charts
C. Role...
Management has asked you to create an RACI chart to help with staff assignments. What does RACI mean?
Management has asked you to create an RACI chart to help with staff assignments. What does RACI mean?
A. Risk, Action, Check, Inform
B. Risk, Accountable,...
Which of the following types of power is the most effective in leading teams?
Which of the following types of power is the most effective in leading teams?
A. Expert
B. Referent
C. Reward
D. Punishment"
Answer: ...
"Which process group does the Manage Project Team process belong to?"
"Which process group does the Manage Project Team process belong to?"
A. Closing
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling"
Answe...
Due to the complexity of the project, you need to hire a UI design expert from another company. This is an example of .
Due to the complexity of the project, you need to hire a UI design expert from another company. This is an example of .
A. Pre-assignment
B. Negotiation
C....
Which of the following technologies does not help facilitate communication in a virtual team?
Which of the following technologies does not help facilitate communication in a virtual team?
A. Face to face meeting
B. Audio conferencing
C. Web-based...
You are forming a virtual project team that includes members from 4 different countries around the world. What is the problem you probably face to build an effective team?
You are forming a virtual project team that includes members from 4 different countries around the world. What is the problem you probably face to build...
You are developing some criteria to promote desired behaviors of your team members and offer incentives based on their performance. Which part of the staffing management plan will you document this?
You are developing some criteria to promote desired behaviors of your team members and offer incentives based on their performance. Which part of the...
In the design phase, the project manager requires all team members to sit together in one dedicated room in order to increase their communication, and help build a sense of community. This is an example of .
In the design phase, the project manager requires all team members to sit together in one dedicated room in order to increase their communication, and...
Which of the following does NOT help motivate an individual?
Which of the following does NOT help motivate an individual?
A. Achievement and growth
B. Job satisfaction
C. Micro-management
D. Challenging wo...
"A project team with members located in India, the US, and the UK would be called a ."
"A project team with members located in India, the US, and the UK would be called a ."
A. Virtual team
B. Scattered team
C. Universal team
D. Global...
The team begins to work together and adjust their work habits and behaviors. Which phase of development is the team in?
The team begins to work together and adjust their work habits and behaviors. Which phase of development is the team in?
A. Performing
B. Storming
C....
Skills such as empathy, influence, creativity, and group facilitation are valuable assets when managing the project team. These skills are often referred to as .
Skills such as empathy, influence, creativity, and group facilitation are valuable assets when managing the project team. These skills are often referred...
The project manager would like to resolve conflicts with a give-and-take attitude rather than using a one-sided approach. What is the best approach for the PM?
The project manager would like to resolve conflicts with a give-and-take attitude rather than using a one-sided approach. What is the best approach...
What is the conflict resolution technique used when the project manager says, "I cannot deal with the issue now!"?
What is the conflict resolution technique used when the project manager says, "I cannot deal with the issue now!"?
A. Forcing
B. Withdrawal
C. Problem...
"The most common sources of conflict in a project include scare resources, scheduling priorities, and ."
"The most common sources of conflict in a project include scare resources, scheduling priorities, and ."
A. Personal work styles
B. Cost priorities
C....
"Tight matrix" and " War room" are referred to as?
"Tight matrix" and " War room" are referred to as?
A. Ground Rules
B. Pre-assignment
C. Collocation
D. Halo effect"
Answer: ...
Ground rules are established to set clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by the project team members. Who will be responsible to enforce the rule?
Ground rules are established to set clear expectations regarding acceptable behavior by the project team members. Who will be responsible to enforce...
Which of the following is a disadvantage of vertical integration?
Which of the following is a disadvantage of vertical integration?
a. Lack of strategic flexibility
b. Lack of coordination
c. Lack of access to technology
d....
Forward integration occurs when a firm
Forward integration occurs when a firm
a. manufactures its own raw materials for making its finished products.
b. acquires businesses that are unrelated...
The ___________ test asks the question: Is the industry profitable or capable of being profitable?
The ___________ test asks the question: Is the industry profitable or capable of being profitable?
a. better-off
b. attractiveness
c. cost of entry
d....
The test that a manager can use to determine whether a firm should undertake an acquisition involves two components - a better-off test and a(n)
The test that a manager can use to determine whether a firm should undertake an acquisition involves two components - a better-off test and a(n)
a....
_________ involve(s) the cost savings that a firm achieves through the distribution of capital among different business units.
_________ involve(s) the cost savings that a firm achieves through the distribution of capital among different business units.
a. Economies...
One advantage of related diversification is
One advantage of related diversification is
a. it allows for the sharing of resources among business units.
b. it can allow a sick or dying company...
__________ exists when the costs of operating two or more businesses are less than the costs of operating the businesses independently.
__________ exists when the costs of operating two or more businesses are less than the costs of operating the businesses independently.
a. Economies...
The choice between related or unrelated diversification often results from an assessment of
The choice between related or unrelated diversification often results from an assessment of
a. the supply-chain efficiency of a firm.
b. the...
__________ is defined as a strategy in which a firm engages in several different businesses that may or may not be related in order to create more value than if the businesses existed as stand-alone entities.
__________ is defined as a strategy in which a firm engages in several different businesses that may or may not be related in order to create more value...
A corporate advantage occurs when a firm
A corporate advantage occurs when a firm
a. introduces new products in a product category in order to provide more choice for its customers.
b. maximizes...
Which of the following is true of a differentiation strategy?
Which of the following is true of a differentiation strategy?
a. More than one firm can compete successfully based on differentiation in an...
A ______ strategy aims to provide a product or service at as low a price as possible to a broad audience.
A ______ strategy aims to provide a product or service at as low a price as possible to a broad audience.
a. cost leadership
b. value-added
c....
SWOT analysis is a tool that allows the managers of a firm to
SWOT analysis is a tool that allows the managers of a firm to
a. compare the firm's processes and performance metrics with those of its competitors...
Which of the following refers to activities involved with collecting, storing, and physically distributing a final product to customers?
Which of the following refers to activities involved with collecting, storing, and physically distributing a final product to customers?
a. Marketing
b....
Which of the following functions is a support activity of a firm?
Which of the following functions is a support activity of a firm?
a. Outbound and inbound logistics
b. Marketing and sales
c. Technological development
d....
Which of the following is an example of an intangible resource of a firm?
Which of the following is an example of an intangible resource of a firm?
a. Computing systems
b. Machinery
c. Raw materials
d. Brand name
Answ...
A buyer will have high bargaining power relative to a supplier when
A buyer will have high bargaining power relative to a supplier when
a. there are few suppliers who provide the required product.
b. the supplier's...
Which of the following factors discourages the entry of new players into a market by reducing consumers' preference to purchase from them?
Which of the following factors discourages the entry of new players into a market by reducing consumers' preference to purchase from them?
a. Incumbency...
Deelited Inc. is a company that manufactures soft toys for children. The company operates on a very large scale, and this has enabled it to price its toys at competitive rates while still retaining good product quality. Since it is extremely difficult for a new entrant to sell toys at such low prices, few competitors have emerged for Deelited in the past five years. In this case, the low threat that Deelighted Inc. faces from new entrants can be attributed to
Deelited Inc. is a company that manufactures soft toys for children. The company operates on a very large scale, and this has enabled it to price its...
Which of the following is a component of Porter's 5-Forces Model?
Which of the following is a component of Porter's 5-Forces Model?
a. Rivalry among suppliers
b. Threat of substitutes
c. Barriers to existence
d....
I a(n) ____________, partners come together by contract and engage jointly in activities that benefit each another without creating a new entity.
I a(n) ____________, partners come together by contract and engage jointly in activities that benefit each another without creating a new entity.
a....
A contractual arrangement whereby a firm allows another firm to use its technology without permitting the use of a common brand name is known as
A contractual arrangement whereby a firm allows another firm to use its technology without permitting the use of a common brand name is known as
a....
Which of the following is an example of exporting strategies?
Which of the following is an example of exporting strategies?
a. Exporters retain complete control over the sales of their products in an international...
A(n) ______ strategy attempts to provide a standardized product to all markets without taking into consideration the local tastes and responsiveness of the regions in which the product is being sold.
A(n) ______ strategy attempts to provide a standardized product to all markets without taking into consideration the local tastes and responsiveness...
Which of the following statements is true of a business-level strategy?
Which of the following statements is true of a business-level strategy?
a. It essentially defines the portfolio of the various businesses in which...
In order to evaluate the external fit of a strategy, a firm must ask which of the following questions?
In order to evaluate the external fit of a strategy, a firm must ask which of the following questions?
a. Can the firm effectively execute the strategy?
b....
Which of the following is true of the emergent aspects of strategy development?
Which of the following is true of the emergent aspects of strategy development?
a. The emergent aspects of strategy development signify flexibility...
The mission of a firm provides
The mission of a firm provides
a. a description of the activities that a firm performs for its customers.
b. information of what a firm wants to achieve...
Ryan is the manager of Home Repairs Inc., a company that provides a wide range of repair and maintenance services. He claims that Home Repairs is the only company that sends technicians to a client's place for repair work within an hour of the client's call to the company. His company offers its services at very affordable prices. Home Repairs distinguishes itself from other companies by providing discounts for people who sign up for memberships. This scenario describe the company's
Ryan is the manager of Home Repairs Inc., a company that provides a wide range of repair and maintenance services. He claims that Home Repairs is the...
According to the economist Milton Friedman, the goal of a business is to
According to the economist Milton Friedman, the goal of a business is to
a. generate job opportunities.
b. serve the society.
c. satisfy all its stakeholders.
d....
Conglomeration is defined as
Conglomeration is defined as
a. the pricing technique where certain unpopular products of a company are priced lower than normal in order to increase...
Which of the following is the last step in the four-step process to implementing CSR?
Which of the following is the last step in the four-step process to implementing CSR?
a. Create a social dimension to the value proposition.
b. Select...
Strategic CSR refers to corporate social responsibility activities that
Strategic CSR refers to corporate social responsibility activities that
a. will make maximum impact on the community.
b. are directly related to the...
Which of the following best supports Milton Friedman's claim that the only social responsibility of business is to increase its profits?
Which of the following best supports Milton Friedman's claim that the only social responsibility of business is to increase its profits?
a. A recent...
Which of the following best describes corporate social responsiveness?
Which of the following best describes corporate social responsiveness?
a. It refers to how businesses should respond when society pressures them to...
The release of evidence of illegal or immoral conduct by a member of an organization to executives in the company or regulating agencies outside the company is known as
The release of evidence of illegal or immoral conduct by a member of an organization to executives in the company or regulating agencies outside the...
A ________ is information used in conducting business that is not commonly known by others and often provides a strategic advantage for a company over its competitors.
A ________ is information used in conducting business that is not commonly known by others and often provides a strategic advantage for a company over...
Which of the following subsets of justice claims that rules should be clearly stated, consistently obeyed, and informally enforced?
Which of the following subsets of justice claims that rules should be clearly stated, consistently obeyed, and informally enforced?
a. Procedural...
Cadmia, a small island nation, recently revised its income-tax law. The new law sought to increase taxes on wealthy corporations and citizen with higher incomes. Surprisingly, everyone responded positively to the tax revision as they believed that it will decrease inequality in the nation. In this scenario, the people of Cadmia have demonstrated support for
Cadmia, a small island nation, recently revised its income-tax law. The new law sought to increase taxes on wealthy corporations and citizen with higher...
Conformation to social expectations and consideration of interpersonal relationships tend to influence
Conformation to social expectations and consideration of interpersonal relationships tend to influence
a. conventional morality
b. transitional morality
c....
Which of the following statements is true of Kantianism?
Which of the following statements is true of Kantianism?
a. It focuses purely on the positive and negative consequences of actions.
b. It holds the...
Which of the following is a shortcoming of utilitarianism?
Which of the following is a shortcoming of utilitarianism?
a. It does not take into account the greatest good for the greatest number of people.
b....
Cindy was called in for interview at a women's fashion magazine for the post of editor. During the interview, the interviewer told Cindy that the work environment of the organization was very vibrant, and that although employees worked long hours, they also regularly enjoyed themselves at employer-sponsored dinner parties and weekend trips. In this case, the interviewer was telling Cindy about the _________ of the organization.
Cindy was called in for interview at a women's fashion magazine for the post of editor. During the interview, the interviewer told Cindy that the work...
After the corporate scandals of the early 2000s
After the corporate scandals of the early 2000s
a. companies began to diversify the composition of their boards.
b. companies began to outsource their...
A firm's task environment includes
A firm's task environment includes
a. its competitors, suppliers, and customers.
b. its organizational culture and structure.
c. the demographic characteristics...
Fyllor Inc., a manufacturer of office equipment such as fax machines and printers, regularly imports component parts and then assembles them to make finished products. A recent increase in the import duty on component parts has led to an increase in the price of the firm's products, and this in turn has led to a drop in sales. In this scenario, the drop in sales for Fyllor Inc. can be attributed to its
Fyllor Inc., a manufacturer of office equipment such as fax machines and printers, regularly imports component parts and then assembles them to make...
The ______ theory proclaims that countries should specialize in producing goods for which they have the lowest opportunity cost of production.
The ______ theory proclaims that countries should specialize in producing goods for which they have the lowest opportunity cost of production.
a....
Among its three primary goals, the ASEAN was originally established to (check all that apply):
Among its three primary goals, the ASEAN was originally established to (check all that apply):
a. allow citizens of member nations to travel freely...
Which of the following trading groups forms the largest trading bloc in the world in terms of its members combined GDP?
Which of the following trading groups forms the largest trading bloc in the world in terms of its members combined GDP?
a. MERCOSUR
b. NAFTA
c. ASEAN
d....
________ was formed to promote economic growth and integration through the reduction of tariffs and the free flow of good within the region of South America.
________ was formed to promote economic growth and integration through the reduction of tariffs and the free flow of good within the region of South...
Which of the following continents has the highest concentration of trade between its constituent nations?
Which of the following continents has the highest concentration of trade between its constituent nations?
a. Europe
b. North America
c. Asia
d. A...
The most favored nation principle, agreed upon by GATT members, meant that
The most favored nation principle, agreed upon by GATT members, meant that
a. foreign firms would be subject to the same rules and regulations...
_________ refers to the integration and interdependence of economic, technological, sociocultural, and political systems across diverse geographic regions.
_________ refers to the integration and interdependence of economic, technological, sociocultural, and political systems across diverse geographic regions.
a....
Managers who have the ability to see beyond the boundaries of managing their day-to-day operations possess
Managers who have the ability to see beyond the boundaries of managing their day-to-day operations possess
a. convergent intelligence.
b. conceptual...
Sally is the manager of Grubb It, a fast-food outlet. She is looking out for trends or events that could turn out to be a problem for the outlet in the future. She believes that the outlet's close proximity to a school could pose a problem, owing to growing concern over childhood obesity. In this scenario, Sally is involved in
Sally is the manager of Grubb It, a fast-food outlet. She is looking out for trends or events that could turn out to be a problem for the outlet in...
Forecasting the likely result that might occur when several events and stakeholders are linked together is known as
Forecasting the likely result that might occur when several events and stakeholders are linked together is known as
a. trend analysis.
b. strategic...
Which of the following is the first step in organizing for stakeholder management?
Which of the following is the first step in organizing for stakeholder management?
a. Map all stakeholder relationships of the firm.
b. Determine...
Which view helps managers better understand the complex internal and external environment of a firm in today's marketplace?
Which view helps managers better understand the complex internal and external environment of a firm in today's marketplace?
a. Contingent
b. Managerial
c....
Which of the following was a reason for the decline of the shareholder view of management?
Which of the following was a reason for the decline of the shareholder view of management?
a. The relaxation of antitrust restrictions on mergers...
Which of the following approaches to management compared an organization to a well-oiled machine and the manager to a machine operator?
Which of the following approaches to management compared an organization to a well-oiled machine and the manager to a machine operator?
a. The contingent...
According to Weber, which of the following is a feature of an ideal bureaucracy?
According to Weber, which of the following is a feature of an ideal bureaucracy?
a. A flat structural organization with few or no levels of separation...
Nathan works at GoDrive Rentals, a car rental company. His job involves motivating and developing the company's sales teams as well as working with senior executives in developing and refining the company's marketing and sales strategies. From the given description, it can be concluded that Nathan is most likely a(n)
Nathan works at GoDrive Rentals, a car rental company. His job involves motivating and developing the company's sales teams as well as working with...
Which of the following actions is more likely to be taken by a manager rather than a leader?
Which of the following actions is more likely to be taken by a manager rather than a leader?
a. Working with a group of people to accomplish a desired...
A popular acronym that captures the context in which today's organizations compete is
A popular acronym that captures the context in which today's organizations compete is
a. CACU.
b. VICA.
c. CAVY.
d. VUCA.
Answer: ...
A firm's strategic choices and leadership approaches need to
A firm's strategic choices and leadership approaches need to
a. steer clear of cultural and socioeconomic influences.
b. be rigid and concrete to...
What is Stakeholders engagement assessment matrix is used for?
What is Stakeholders engagement assessment matrix is used for?
A. To identify the gaps between Planned engagement level and Desired engagement level
B....
What is the main output of the Identify Stakeholder process?
What is the main output of the Identify Stakeholder process?
A. Risk register
B. Stakeholder register
C. Requirement register
D. Member register
...
Which of the following is the most useful input to identify stakeholders?
Which of the following is the most useful input to identify stakeholders?
A. Change control procedures
B. Lessons learned from previous projects.
C....
Which is a tool and technique that project manager uses to distribute information to stakeholders about the project schedule?
Which is a tool and technique that project manager uses to distribute information to stakeholders about the project schedule?
A. Stakeholder information...
Which process uses Information Management System as a tool and technique?
Which process uses Information Management System as a tool and technique?
A. Identify Stakeholder
B. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
C. Control Stakeholder...
How is Information Management System used to control stakeholder engagement?
How is Information Management System used to control stakeholder engagement?
A. It allows the project manager to store project information
B. It allows...
All of the followings are interpersonal skills in managing the stakeholder's engagement, EXCEPT.
All of the followings are interpersonal skills in managing the stakeholder's engagement, EXCEPT.
A. Resisting to change
B. Building trust
C. Resolving...
What is an activity of the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?
What is an activity of the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Planning strategies for engaging stakeholders
B. Clarifying and resolving issues
C....
Which process uses Work Performance Data as an input?
Which process uses Work Performance Data as an input?
A. Control Stakeholder Engagement
B. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D....
Which of the following activities is not related to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
Which of the following activities is not related to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
A. Adjusting the Work Order
B. Addressing and resolving...
Who should be kept informed only in a project?
Who should be kept informed only in a project?
A. Customer
B. Sponsor
C. Senior Manager
D. None of the answer"
Answer: ...
Which of the following is NOT a classification model used for stakeholder analysis?
Which of the following is NOT a classification model used for stakeholder analysis?
A. Salience model
B. Power/interest grid
C. Interest/influence...
Who should be closely managed in stakeholder management?
Who should be closely managed in stakeholder management?
A. The stakeholders have Low power and High interest
B. The stakeholders have High power...
What is the engagement level of a stakeholder who is neither supportive nor resistant?
What is the engagement level of a stakeholder who is neither supportive nor resistant?
A. Leading
B. Supportive
C. Unaware
D. Neutral"
Answer:&...
"What should the engagement level of Senior Manager be at the beginning of a project?
"What should the engagement level of Senior Manager be at the beginning of a project?
A. Leading
B. Supportive
C. Active
D. Neutral"
Answer:&nb...
Which statement is CORRECT about the engagement level of stakeholders?
Which statement is CORRECT about the engagement level of stakeholders?
A. The engagement level of stakeholders doesn't change through the project...
Which of the following is/are not a technique used to manage stakeholder engagement?
Which of the following is/are not a technique used to manage stakeholder engagement?
A. Stakeholder Analysis
B. Management Skills
C. Interpersonal...
Who is responsible for engaging and managing the various stakeholders in a project?
Who is responsible for engaging and managing the various stakeholders in a project?
A. The project sponsor
B. The project QA
C. The project team
D....
Risk impact assessment investigates on a project objective such as schedule, cost, quality, performance (including both positive & negative effects).
Risk impact assessment investigates on a project objective such as schedule, cost, quality, performance (including both positive & negative effects).
A....
"Risk probability assessment investigates that each specific risk will occur.
"Risk probability assessment investigates that each specific risk will occur.
A. The potential effect
B. The likelihood
C. The meanings
D. The ob...
Perform is usually a rapid & cost- effective means of establishing priorities for plan risk responses.
Perform is usually a rapid & cost- effective means of establishing priorities for plan risk responses.
A. Plan Risk Responses
B. Quantitative...
Risks are prioritized according to their potential implications for having an effect on .
Risks are prioritized according to their potential implications for having an effect on .
A. Project Deliverables
B. Project Time
C. Project Scope
D....
"Who should be considered to ask for Expert Judgment in Plan risk management process?
"Who should be considered to ask for Expert Judgment in Plan risk management process?
A. PM
B. Tester
C. Senior Management
D. Developer"
Answer...
"The Plan Risk Management process should begin and should be completed ."
"The Plan Risk Management process should begin and should be completed ."
A. When a project is conceived, early during project planning
B. Early during...
Who should be involved in Plan Risk Management process to define how risk management will be structured & performed for the project?
Who should be involved in Plan Risk Management process to define how risk management will be structured & performed for the project?
A. PM &...
If identified risks do not occur, the associated time or cost reserves should be .
If identified risks do not occur, the associated time or cost reserves should be .
A. Returned to the company
B. Used to address other issues on the...
Implementing contingency plan or workarounds (for project risks) sometimes results in a .
Implementing contingency plan or workarounds (for project risks) sometimes results in a .
A. Issue
B. Change Request
C. Risk
D. Error
Answer:&n...
"Closing of risks that are no longer applicable" occurs during .
"Closing of risks that are no longer applicable" occurs during .
A. Plan risk management
B. Identify risks
C. Plan risk responses
D. Control risk...
You are performed to - Periodically review the risk management plan & risk register & adjust the documentation as required - Determine whether any changes or adjustments need to be made to what was planned based on information that becomes apparent once work begins."
You are performed to- Periodically review the risk management plan & risk register & adjust the documentation as required- Determine whether...
You are performed to assess the overall process of risk management on the project, as well as the effectiveness of specific risk responses that have been implemented.
You are performed to assess the overall process of risk management on the project, as well as the effectiveness of specific risk responses that have...
A new risk has been created by the implementation of selected risk responses. What is it?
A new risk has been created by the implementation of selected risk responses. What is it?
A. Opportunity
B. Secondary Risk
C. Primary Risk
D. Iss...
More than one risk response strategy can be used to address .
More than one risk response strategy can be used to address .
A. The same issue
B. The different risks, not the same risk
C. The same risk
D. The...
"One risk response strategy can be used for ."
"One risk response strategy can be used for ."
A. Only one risk
B. Two risks
C. Three risks
D. More than one risk.
Answer: ...
"Risk Response Strategies sometimes called ."
"Risk Response Strategies sometimes called ."
A. Risk Mitigation Strategies
B. Risk Contingency Strategies
C. Risk Planning Strategies
D. Risk Reviewing...
Project risk management an agenda item at periodic status meetings.
Project risk management an agenda item at periodic status meetings.
A. Include
B. Should be
C. Should not be
D. Does not include
Answer: ...
Which process figure out "What are we going to do about each top risk?"
Which process figure out "What are we going to do about each top risk?"
A. Plan risk management
B. Identify risks
C. Plan risk responses
D. Control...
Which is output of Perform Quantitative risk analysis?
Which is output of Perform Quantitative risk analysis?
A. Watch List
B. Risks grouped by categories
C. Prioritized list of quantified risks
D. Plan...
What is more objective or numerical evaluation, the rating of each risk is based on an attempt to measure the actual probability & amount at stake (impact).
What is more objective or numerical evaluation, the rating of each risk is based on an attempt to measure the actual probability & amount at stake...
What is a subjective evaluation, even though numbers are used for the rating.
What is a subjective evaluation, even though numbers are used for the rating.
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Quantitative risk analysis
C. Inspection
D....
What is process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. The key benefit of this process is that it produces quantitative risk information to support decision making in order to reduce project uncertainly.
What is process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. The key benefit of this process is that it produces...
In root cause analysis, the identified risks are reorganized by to help identify more risks.
In root cause analysis, the identified risks are reorganized by to help identify more risks.
A. Their root causes
B. Ideas
C. Issues
D. Experts"
...
Who should be involved in risk identification?
Who should be involved in risk identification?
A. PM
B. SM
C. Developers
D. Everyone"
Answer: ...
Which of the following would NOT be a valid component in a risk management plan?
Which of the following would NOT be a valid component in a risk management plan?
A. Templates
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Budgeting
D. Metho...
"Which of the following risk has the highest impact(negative) on a project?"
"Which of the following risk has the highest impact(negative) on a project?"
A. A rating of 0.7 on the impact scale
B. A rating of 0.8 on the impact...
Nam wants to assign a risk owner for every project risk for which a risk response action has been planned. Where must he update this information?
Nam wants to assign a risk owner for every project risk for which a risk response action has been planned. Where must he update this information?
A....
For identifying risks, what tool should be used to address all the strengths, weakness, opportunities and threats the project is facing?
For identifying risks, what tool should be used to address all the strengths, weakness, opportunities and threats the project is facing?
A. SWOT Analysis
B....
Which of the following risks CANNOT be managed proactively?
Which of the following risks CANNOT be managed proactively?
A. Unknown risks
B. Overall project risks
C. Risks of project cost overrun
D. Identified...
Which of the following is risk response strategy for both negative & positive risks?
Which of the following is risk response strategy for both negative & positive risks?
A. Avoid
B. Exploit
C. Transfer
D. Accept
Answer: ...
"Quantitative risk analysis should be performed ."
"Quantitative risk analysis should be performed ."
A. Only on risks identified by the project manager
B. Only in extreme cases
C. Only on prioritized...
Which process is responsible for controlling and recording on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?
Which process is responsible for controlling and recording on the relationships between components of the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B....
Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernible tendency?
Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernible tendency?
A. Service level management
B. Problem management
C. Change management
D....
A process owner has been identified with an "I" in the RACI matrix. Which one of following would be expected of them?
A process owner has been identified with an "I" in the RACI matrix. Which one of following would be expected of them?
A. Be accountable for the outcome...
Who is responsible for defining the process for service?
Who is responsible for defining the process for service?
A. Service Manager
B. Service QA
C. Service Owner
D. Both A & B are correct
Answer...
Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?
Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?
A. A capacity database
B. A definitive media...
What are the categories of events described in the Process_Event Management for AMS?"
What are the categories of events described in the Process_Event Management for AMS?"
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled,...
What is not a change type?
What is not a change type?
A. Normal change
B. Emergency change
C. Standard change
D. Big change
Answer: ...
Who is responsible for the Service manager assignment?
Who is responsible for the Service manager assignment?
A. Account Manager
B. OM/BUL
C. Service Owner
D. QA Manager
Answer: ...
What are sub-processes of the Access Management Process?"
What are sub-processes of the Access Management Process?"
A. Access management planning
B. User access request processing
C. Access administration
D....
FSOFT provides Call center service for customer, service time is 8:00 AM to 5:00 PM. In SLA, Response time is 1 hour and Resolution time is 4 hours. A user sends email to report an incident at 16:30 on Monday. On Tuesday morning, a Call center staff replies to the customer at 8:15 AM and resolves the incident at 12:00 PM. SLA of ticket is met or failed?"
FSOFT provides Call center service for customer, service time is 8:00 AM to 5:00 PM. In SLA, Response time is 1 hour and Resolution time is 4 hours....
Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?
Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?
A. To ensure overall business risk is optimized
B. To ensure that changes...
Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?
Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?
A. To provide information to users and customers
B. To update the service catalogue...
What process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?
What process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?
A. Service level...
What is the first step when an incident is detected?
What is the first step when an incident is detected?
A. Record the incident data
B. Determine the priority
C. Diagnosis
D. Assign to a supporter
...
Which of the following tasks is part of proactive Problem Management?
Which of the following tasks is part of proactive Problem Management?
A. Making a change to resolve a problem
B. Registering frequently occurring...
When is it determined if a Problem can be associated with a Known Error?
When is it determined if a Problem can be associated with a Known Error?
A. Root Cause and CI is known
B. There is a possibility of a recurrence
C....
Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?"
Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?"
A. A user calls the Service Desk to ask how to work with a new application?
B. A...
FSOFT signs a contract with ABC company to support users and maintain an ERP system. When the CFO (Chef Finance Officer) of this company requires to change some functions in the Accounting module, what is the BEST solution for FSOFT's service team?
FSOFT signs a contract with ABC company to support users and maintain an ERP system. When the CFO (Chef Finance Officer) of this company requires to...
Which group should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?
Which group should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?
A. Board of management
B. Emergency change advisory...
Which process is responsible for low risk, frequent occurring and low cost changes?
Which process is responsible for low risk, frequent occurring and low cost changes?
A. Change management
B. Problem management
C. Release and deployment...
Which one of the following do major incidents require?
Which one of the following do major incidents require?
A. Separate procedure
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation
Answer:...
Which one of the following is the BEST description of service request?
Which one of the following is the BEST description of service request?
A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
B....
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
A. To automatically detect incidents occurred in the applications and infrastructures...
Event management, Problem management, Access management and Request fulfillment are parts of which stage of the service lifecycle?
Event management, Problem management, Access management and Request fulfillment are parts of which stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Service strategy
B....
Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?
A. Service Level Agreement
B. A request for change (RFC)
C. The service catalogue
D....
What is an RACI used for?
What is an RACI used for?
A. Performance analysis
B. Recording configuration items
C. Monitoring services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities
...
Which of the following BEST describes an Incident?
Which of the following BEST describes an Incident?
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned...
Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?
Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?
A. The incident impacts many users
B. The same incident occurs many times
C. Both A & B are correct
D....
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?
A. To prevent problems and resulting incidents from happening
B. To eliminate...
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