Archive for September 2018

Generally speaking, I can use an SPSS dataset or any adequately equipped dataset for the following:

Generally speaking, I can use an SPSS dataset or any adequately equipped dataset for the following:




A) To answer research questions
B) To answer my personal relationship questions
C) To answer my mother's nagging questions
D) To answer many questions about many populations from all over the world
E) To determine paternity


Answer: A) To answer research questions

This course is designed to provide me with:

This course is designed to provide me with:



A) A warm place to sleep
B) A warm place to learn
C) A few skills I didn't have before
D) A more in depth understanding of research and data management than I had before
E) C & D


Answer: E) C & D

Research intended for a general, or government audience would/could be circulated:

Research intended for a general, or government audience would/could be circulated:


A) Generally to an academic community for an academic purpose, but could be accessed by the public
B) Generally to a government community for an academic purpose, and is restricted
C) Generally to any audience that is interested, and is willing to pay
D) Via government websites, libraries, and or across government agencies, and inter-governmental departments


Answer: A) Generally to an academic community for an academic purpose, but could be accessed by the public

Research intended for an academic audience would be circulated:

Research intended for an academic audience would be circulated:


A) Generally to an academic community for an academic purpose, but could be accessed by the public
B) Generally to an academic community for an academic purpose, and is restricted
C) Generally to any audience that is interested, and is willing to pay
D) No one is interested in academic research


Answer: B) Generally to an academic community for an academic purpose, and is restricted

Research in a law enforcement context is considered useful because:

Research in a law enforcement context is considered useful because:




A) It cannot provide answers to better understand any aspect of law enforcement; resources, structure, performance, crime trends, criminal behavior, public confidence, actions of the police).
B) It can provide answers to better understand just about any aspect of law enforcement; resources, structure, performance, crime trends, criminal behavior, public confidence, actions of the police).
C) It can provide a foundation for continued promotion
D) It can provide answers to better understand all aspects of tax enforcement; resources, structure, performance, tax trends, tax offending, public confidence, and actions of tax officials).


Answer: B) It can provide answers to better understand just about any aspect of law enforcement; resources, structure, performance, crime trends, criminal behavior, public confidence, actions of the police).

The three biggest "road bumps" to effective knowledge translation are:

The three biggest "road bumps" to effective knowledge translation are:


A) Organization, wording & clarity
B) Organizations, world views & clarity
C) Assumptions, wording & clarity
D) Clarity, wording & biases
E) None of the above


Answer: C) Assumptions, wording & clarity

Common "road bumps" to effective knowledge translation are:

Common "road bumps" to effective knowledge translation are:




A) Assumptions, Attitudes, Receptiveness, Tiredness, Learning disabilities, Confirmation of understanding, Biology
B) Assumptions, Attitudes, Receptiveness, Timeliness, Learning style, Confirmation of understanding, Bias
C) Assumptions, Aptitude, Receptiveness, Timeliness, Learning style, Confirmation of understanding, Bias
D) Assumptions, Attitudes, Receptiveness, Persuasiveness, Timeliness, Learning style, Confirmation of understanding, Bias


Answer: B) Assumptions, Attitudes, Receptiveness, Timeliness, Learning style, Confirmation of understanding, Bias

Generally speaking, retrieving primary data is considered:

Generally speaking, retrieving primary data is considered:




A) Entirely more desirable than retrieving secondary data
B) Costly
C) More specific
D) Less time efficient than retrieving secondary source data
E) All of the above
F) B, C & D


Answer: F) B, C & D

Generally speaking, retrieving secondary data is considered:

Generally speaking, retrieving secondary data is considered:




A) More desirable than retrieving primary source data
B) Costly
C) More specific
D) Less time efficient than retrieving secondary source data
E) All of the above
F) None of the above


Answer: A) More desirable than retrieving primary source data

Quantitative methods generally include:

Quantitative methods generally include:




A) Surveys, electronic raw data, raw file data
B) Phone interviews, raw conversations
C) Interviews of any kind
D) Surveys are the only quantitative method
E) None of the above


Answer: A) Surveys, electronic raw data, raw file data

Qualitative methods generally include:

Qualitative methods generally include:




A) Interviews of participants which generate text based responses as opposed to numeric responses
B) Surveys of participants
C) Raw file data of survey participants
D) CPIC survey participant extractions
E) None of the above


Answer: A) Interviews of participants which generate text based responses as opposed to numeric responses

In research, coding generally refers to:

In research, coding generally refers to:




A) Computer coding systems
B) Hyper Text Mark-up Language (HTML)
C) Adding numeric codes or values to numbers which is text based in a survey, or raw files.
D) Adding numeric codes or values to information which is text based in a survey, or raw files.
E) Adding numeric codes or values to information which is text based in a survey, or raw files and is typically done in conjunction with a coding manual
F) C or E


Answer: F) C or E

The reason we need to articulate our research simply and clearly is:

The reason we need to articulate our research simply and clearly is:


A) It helps get the research published
B) It is beneficial to many other people
C) To get the message/information across to the decision maker
D) There is no benefit to being articulate
E) None of the above


Answer: C) To get the message/information across to the decision maker

A Likert Scale survey question would most resemble the following:

A Likert Scale survey question would most resemble the following:




A) My degree program was beneficial.
a. Disagree----somewhat agree----mostly agree--------Agree

B) My degree program was beneficial.
Disagree--------------------------------------------Agree

C) I am almost finished my degree.
a. Yes---------------------------------------------------No

D) My degree program was beneficial.


Answer:

a. Do not agree----somewhat agree----mostly agree--------completely in agreement, but there would be a few changes I would make
A) My degree program was beneficial.
a. Disagree----somewhat agree----mostly agree--------Agree

The general elements of a research report include:

The general elements of a research report include:


A) Front cover, general content, conclusion & appendix
B) Title page, index, content, results, conclusion, recommendations, references
C) General problem, specific problem, who it is a problem for, why it is a problem, what you are going to do about it, how you are going to do it, what you did, what the results were, what you recommend is done about it
D) General problem, specific problem, why it is a problem, what you are going to do about it, how you are going to do it, when you are going to something about it, what you did, what the results were, what you recommend is done about it
E) None of the above


Answer: B) Title page, index, content, results, conclusion, recommendations, references

Primary source data is generally retrieved from:

Primary source data is generally retrieved from:



A) Statistics Canada or Open Data portals
B) The Primary Data Agency Network of Canada
C) Abbotsford Police Department
D) Surveys, interviews and raw agency files or databases


Answer: D) Surveys, interviews and raw agency files or databases

Secondary source data is generally retrieved from:

Secondary source data is generally retrieved from:


A) Magazines and friends
B) Statistics Canada, and or other data warehouses
C) Research reports
D) B & C
E) It shouldn't be retrieved in the first place, because it is considered unreliable


Answer: D) B & C

Which of the following is a hypotheses:

Which of the following is a hypotheses:


A) The more coffee people drink, the more they will become addicted to caffeine
B) As people drink more coffee, the value of coffee will increase
C) Caffeine is addictive
D) Coffee is expensive
E) All of the above


Answer: A) The more coffee people drink, the more they will become addicted to caffeine

The software program that will be used in this class is called SPSS. What was the original full name of SPSS:

The software program that will be used in this class is called SPSS. What was the original full name of SPSS:



A) Statistical Package for the Social Society
B) Statistical Package for the Social Services
C) Statistical Package for the Social Sciences
D) Statistical Package for the Sustainable Sciences
E) None of the above


Answer: C) Statistical Package for the Social Sciences

Value labels are:

Value labels are:


A) Used to identify categories represented by values
B) Used to identify categories represented by variables
C) Used to identify categories represented by only numeric values
D) Used to identify categories represented by all types of data
E) None of the above


Answer: B) Used to identify categories represented by variables

Missing data is considered:

Missing data is considered:


A) A term that refers to respondents who were not asked that particular question
B) A term that refers to data that was not provided by a respondent
C) A term that refers to data that has questionable reliability
D) A term that refers to data that has questionable validity
E) A & B


Answer: B) A term that refers to data that was not provided by a respondent

A sampling error is considered as:

A sampling error is considered as:


A) As the extent to which the responses of those sampled differ as a result of a poor question
B) As the extent to which the responses of those sampled differ from the responses of the larger population
C) As the extent to which the responses of those sampled differ as a result of a small sample group
D) As the extent to which the responses of those sampled differ as a result of a large sample group
E) None of the above


Answer: B) As the extent to which the responses of those sampled differ from the responses of the larger population

Reliability in social science research:

Reliability in social science research:




A) Refers to the quality of a measuring instrument that would cause it to report the same value in successive observations of a given case.
B) Refers to the quality of the theory to be researched.
C) Refers to the quality of a measuring instrument that would cause it to report a different value in successive observations of a given case.
D) Refers to the quality of the alternative hypothesis.
E) None of the above.


Answer: A) Refers to the quality of a measuring instrument that would cause it to report the same value in successive observations of a given case.

Primary research is considered as:

Primary research is considered as:




A) Developing your own theory and then trying to prove its validity.
B) Deriving a concept from a proven theory.
C) Developing an alternative hypothesis from a proven theory.
D) Collecting and analyzing your own data.
E) All of the above.


Answer: D) Collecting and analyzing your own data.

In social science research, validity is:

In social science research, validity is:




A) A theory that has been proven.
B) A concept that has been proven.
C) A hypothesis that has been proven.
D) A, B, and C.
E) None of the above.


Answer: D) A, B, and C.

An independent variable is:

An independent variable is:




A) The variable that is independent on the theory.
B) The variable that is independent on the hypothesis.
C) The variable that is independent on the concept.
D) The variable hypothesized to cause, lead to, or explain variation in another variable.
E) None of the above.


Answer: D) The variable hypothesized to cause, lead to, or explain variation in another variable.

A dependent variable is:

A dependent variable is:




A) The variable you are trying to explain.
B) The variable that is dependent on the theory.
C) The variable that is dependent on the hypothesis.
D) The variable that is dependent on the concept.
E) None of the above.


Answer: E) None of the above.

A hypothesis is:

A hypothesis is:


A) A supposition or proposed explanation made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigation.
B) A statement of expectation derived from a theory that proposes a relationship between two or more variables.
C) A statement of expectation derived from a theory that proposes a relationship between two or more concepts.
D) A statement of expectation derived from a concept that proposes a relationship between two or more theories.
E) None of the above.


Answer: A) A supposition or proposed explanation made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigation.

Variables are:

Variables are:



A) Placeholders for where the data will be entered.
B) Answers to the hypothesis.
C) Empirical indicators of the concepts we are researching.
D) Theories to be tested.
E) All of the above.


Answer: C) Empirical indicators of the concepts we are researching.

A theory is:

A theory is:



A) A statement or set of statements describing the relationships among concepts.
B) An answer describing the relationships among concepts.
C) A set of statements or principles devised to explain a group of facts or phenomena.
D) A hypothesis to a very specific question.
E) None of the above.


Answer: C) A set of statements or principles devised to explain a group of facts or phenomena.

A primary goal of social scientific research is to examine:

A primary goal of social scientific research is to examine:


A) Various acceptable social etiquette in today's world and then develop them into theories that help us explain, understand, and make sense of the social world.
B) Various concepts that constitutes our knowledge of the social world and then develop them into theories that help us explain, understand, and make sense of the social world.
C) Various social trends in today's world and then develop them into theories that help us explain, understand, and make sense of the social world.
D) Various social media websites to determine what is trending and then develop them into theories that help us explain, understand, and make sense of the social world.
E) None of the above.
F) All of the above.


Answer: B) Various concepts that constitutes our knowledge of the social world and then develop them into theories that help us explain, understand, and make sense of the social world.

Much of the social scientist's work involves:

Much of the social scientist's work involves:



A) Comparing social relationships in social theories to empirically observed relationships among social data; poll individuals and enter the data into databases.
B) Collect forensic data such as fingerprints and DNA at a crime scene and conduct investigate inquiries such as speaking to witnesses at a crime scene.
C) Determining who committed the crime.
D) None of the above.
E) a, b, & c


Answer: A) Comparing social relationships in social theories to empirically observed relationships among social data; poll individuals and enter the data into databases.

"What is the common point between Histogram and Pareto chart?"

"What is the common point between Histogram and Pareto chart?"




A. It considers the influence of time
B. It is a special form of bar chart
C. It describes the central tendency
D. None of the answer"


Answer: B

What are Checksheets also known as?

What are Checksheets also known as?




A. Ask sheets
B. Question sheets
C. Tally sheets
D. Spreadsheets"


Answer: C

When is a process considered out of control?

When is a process considered out of control?




A. A data point exceeds a control limit
B. Seven consecutive plot points are above the mean
C. Seven consecutive plot points are below the mean
D. All of the answers"


Answer: D

You are using a control chart to analyze defects, when something on the chart causes you to realize that you have a serious quality problem. What is the MOST likely reason for this?

You are using a control chart to analyze defects, when something on the chart causes you to realize that you have a serious quality problem. What is the MOST likely reason for this?




A. The rule of seven
B. Plan-Do-Check-Act
C. Upper control limits
D. Lower control limits"



Answer: A

What is WRONG with Quality audit?

What is WRONG with Quality audit?




A. It may be scheduled or random
B. It may be conducted by external auditors
C. It may be conducted by internal auditors
D. It should be conducted by the project team itself"


Answer: D

Quality Audit is a structured, independent process to .

Quality Audit is a structured, independent process to .




A. Determine process compliance
B. Detect the problems caused by project team
C. Identify the root causes of problem
D. Determine the acceptability of the work product"


Answer: A

What is the purpose of Quality Audits?

What is the purpose of Quality Audits?



A. Identifying the best practices
B. Identifying the nonconformity
C. Supporting improvement in process implementation
D. All of the answers"


Answer: D

What is TRUE about Inspection?

What is TRUE about Inspection?




A. Keeping errors out of the process
B. Keeping errors out of the hands of the customer
C. Keeping errors out of the targeted goal
D. Keeping errors out of the product"


Answer: B

Which of the following is an example of cost of quality?

Which of the following is an example of cost of quality?




A. Inspecting your product to be sure that it meets requirements.
B. Reviewing documents used to produce your product to be sure that they do not have defects.
C. Training your team on techniques that will help them avoid defects.
D. All of the answers"


Answer: D

What is the benefit of continuous process improvement?

What is the benefit of continuous process improvement?



A. Remove activities that do not add value
B. Remove activities related to processes
C. Remove activities that the team hates to do
D. Enforce activities that the quality assurance department wants to do"


Answer: A

Warranty cost is an example of .

Warranty cost is an example of .



A. Appraisal cost
B. Service cost
C. Correction cost
D. Failure cost"


Answer: D


"Prevention costs include all of the following EXCEPT ."

"Prevention costs include all of the following EXCEPT ."




A. Have team members get professional certifications
B. Collect lessons learnt & best practices of previous projects
C. Conduct peer reviews, group reviews on the products
D. Organize knowledge sharing/workshops for the team"


Answer: C

The applications being built by your programming team have lots of bugs. So, you write up coding standards that will guide everyone in building the product with more attention to quality. Which of the following activity precisely describes this?

The applications being built by your programming team have lots of bugs. So, you write up coding standards that will guide everyone in building the product with more attention to quality. Which of the following activity precisely describes this?




A. Inspection
B. Prevention
C. Investigation
D. Implementation"



Answer: B

You are managing a project that uses the toughest design pattern. Your technical architect analyzes a problem and she uses an Ishikawa diagram to figure out the root cause of a defect. Which process is being performed?

You are managing a project that uses the toughest design pattern. Your technical architect analyzes a problem and she uses an Ishikawa diagram to figure out the root cause of a defect. Which process is being performed?




A. Control quality
B. Quality analysis
C. Plan quality management
D. Perform quality assurance"


Answer: A

Which of the following is NOT an example of COQ?

Which of the following is NOT an example of COQ?




A. Spend more time in studying coding standards and design pattern
B. Request TQA to inspect the design pattern
C. Load more programmers to secure the release date
D. Mobilize additional resources to repair defective products"



Answer: C

"Quality Assurance should be performed."

"Quality Assurance should be performed."




A. During the creation of the project proposal
B. During the project design phase
C. During the project testing phase
D. Throughout the project lifecycle"


Answer: D

What is CORRECT about the upper and lower specification limits?

What is CORRECT about the upper and lower specification limits?



A. They are based on requirements of agreement
B. They are based on standard statistical calculation
C. They are the same as the control limits
D. They are always set inside the upper and lower control limits"


Answer: A

What statement is TRUE?

What statement is TRUE?



A. Control limits are not different from specification limits
B. Control limits are different from specification limits
C. Control limits are higher than specification limits
D. Control limits are lower than specification limits"


Answer: B

What is CORRECT about ISO 9000?

What is CORRECT about ISO 9000?



A. ISO 9000 is an organizational project management maturity model
B. ISO 9000 is an international standard for project management
C. ISO 9000 certification ensures that your company produces quality products
D. ISO 9000 is an international standard for quality management systems"


Answer: D

You are developing some criteria to promote desired behaviors of your team members and offer incentives based on their performance. Which part of the staffing management plan will you document this?

You are developing some criteria to promote desired behaviors of your team members and offer incentives based on their performance. Which part of the staffing management plan will you document this?




A. Resource histogram
B. Training needs
C. Safety procedures
D. Recognition and rewards"


Answer: D

In the design phase, the project manager requires all team members to sit together in one dedicated room in order to increase their communication, and help build a sense of community. This is an example of .

In the design phase, the project manager requires all team members to sit together in one dedicated room in order to increase their communication, and help build a sense of community. This is an example of .




A. War room
B. Virtual team
C. Socially active team
D. Common area"


Answer: A

Forward integration occurs when a firm

Forward integration occurs when a firm



a. manufactures its own raw materials for making its finished products.
b. acquires businesses that are unrelated to its core product.
c. owns or controls the distribution channels for its main products.
d. conducts market research internally.


Answer: C

One advantage of related diversification is

One advantage of related diversification is



a. it allows for the sharing of resources among business units.
b. it can allow a sick or dying company to use capital generated in a profitable division to prop it up for a short period of time.
c. it can achieve financial economies through restructuring.
d. it gives the firm improved coordination and quality control.


Answer: A

__________ is defined as a strategy in which a firm engages in several different businesses that may or may not be related in order to create more value than if the businesses existed as stand-alone entities.

__________ is defined as a strategy in which a firm engages in several different businesses that may or may not be related in order to create more value than if the businesses existed as stand-alone entities. 



a. Diversification
b. Outsourcing
c. Cost leadership
d. Focus


Answer: A

A corporate advantage occurs when a firm

A corporate advantage occurs when a firm



a. introduces new products in a product category in order to provide more choice for its customers.
b. maximizes its resources to build a competitive advantage across its various business lines.
c. builds its core competencies in a particular business in order to increase its profits.
d. introduces a new brand logo and package design for its most successful product in a division.


Answer: B

Which of the following is true of a differentiation strategy?

Which of the following is true of a differentiation strategy? 



a. More than one firm can compete successfully based on differentiation in an industry.
b. Differentiation strategies based on distribution systems are generally unsuccessful.
c. A firm can achieve and sustain differentiation as long as its price premium is less than the extra costs incurred in being unique.
d. An advantage of differentiation is that customers do not have to pay a premium price for a firm's product, even if that product is truly differentiated in terms of value.


Answer: A

SWOT analysis is a tool that allows the managers of a firm to

SWOT analysis is a tool that allows the managers of a firm to



a. compare the firm's processes and performance metrics with those of its competitors and other leading players in the industry.
b. get an overview of the firm's internal strengths and weaknesses and predict external threats and opportunities.
c. analyze and evaluate the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats faced by their competitors in the market.
d. check the process of projects that re yet to be completed and set more realistic deadlines for them.


Answer: B

A buyer will have high bargaining power relative to a supplier when

A buyer will have high bargaining power relative to a supplier when



a. there are few suppliers who provide the required product.
b. the supplier's products are highly specialized.
c. the supplier's products are largely undifferentiated.
d. the demand for the supplier's product is high.


Answer: C

Deelited Inc. is a company that manufactures soft toys for children. The company operates on a very large scale, and this has enabled it to price its toys at competitive rates while still retaining good product quality. Since it is extremely difficult for a new entrant to sell toys at such low prices, few competitors have emerged for Deelited in the past five years. In this case, the low threat that Deelighted Inc. faces from new entrants can be attributed to

Deelited Inc. is a company that manufactures soft toys for children. The company operates on a very large scale, and this has enabled it to price its toys at competitive rates while still retaining good product quality. Since it is extremely difficult for a new entrant to sell toys at such low prices, few competitors have emerged for Deelited in the past five years. In this case, the low threat that Deelighted Inc. faces from new entrants can be attributed to



a. demand-side benefits of scale.
b. incumbency advantages.
c. supply-side economies of scale.
d. high capital requirements of the industry.


Answer: C

Which of the following is an example of exporting strategies?

Which of the following is an example of exporting strategies?



a. Exporters retain complete control over the sales of their products in an international market.
b. Exports are free from the impact of tariff legislation.
c. They facilitate a firm to expand to global markets in an inexpensive way.
d. Exports are not generally affected by the political and economic instability of foreign markets.


Answer: C

A(n) ______ strategy attempts to provide a standardized product to all markets without taking into consideration the local tastes and responsiveness of the regions in which the product is being sold.

A(n) ______ strategy attempts to provide a standardized product to all markets without taking into consideration the local tastes and responsiveness of the regions in which the product is being sold. 



a. international
b. global
c. multinational
d. transnational


Answer: B

Which of the following statements is true of a business-level strategy?

Which of the following statements is true of a business-level strategy?



a. It essentially defines the portfolio of the various businesses in which a company is involved.
b. It involves the development of strategic alliances and partnerships with other firms.
c. It creates value through the coordination and configuration of multimarket activities.
d. It determines how a company will compete in a given business and succeed at it.


Answer: D

In order to evaluate the external fit of a strategy, a firm must ask which of the following questions?

In order to evaluate the external fit of a strategy, a firm must ask which of the following questions?



a. Can the firm effectively execute the strategy?
b. Does the strategy leverage the firm's key resources?
c. Does the strategy provide a distinct, differentiated, and sustainable position in the marketplace?
d. Does the strategy fit with the environmental landscape?


Answer: D

Which of the following is true of the emergent aspects of strategy development?

Which of the following is true of the emergent aspects of strategy development?



a. The emergent aspects of strategy development signify flexibility in an organization.
b. They are formulated by a top-down process in the organization.
c. The line managers of an organization are usually at the forefront of change in an industry.
d. The emergent aspects of strategy development are less important than its planned aspects.


Answer: A

The mission of a firm provides

The mission of a firm provides



a. a description of the activities that a firm performs for its customers.
b. information of what a firm wants to achieve and how it plans to accomplish that.
c. a series of quantifiable milestones with which a firm can assess its progress.
d. an outline of what a firm hopes to achieve within a specific time frame.


Answer: A

Ryan is the manager of Home Repairs Inc., a company that provides a wide range of repair and maintenance services. He claims that Home Repairs is the only company that sends technicians to a client's place for repair work within an hour of the client's call to the company. His company offers its services at very affordable prices. Home Repairs distinguishes itself from other companies by providing discounts for people who sign up for memberships. This scenario describe the company's

Ryan is the manager of Home Repairs Inc., a company that provides a wide range of repair and maintenance services. He claims that Home Repairs is the only company that sends technicians to a client's place for repair work within an hour of the client's call to the company. His company offers its services at very affordable prices. Home Repairs distinguishes itself from other companies by providing discounts for people who sign up for memberships. This scenario describe the company's



a. objectives.
b. core competencies.
c. mission statement.
d. vision.


Answer: B

Conglomeration is defined as

Conglomeration is defined as



a. the pricing technique where certain unpopular products of a company are priced lower than normal in order to increase their sale.
b. the strategy in which a company acquires other companies that deal with similar products or market segments.
c. the act of growing through unrelated diversification, essentially by acquiring companies in different industries.
d. the process in which one product of a company eats into the profits of another product of the same company.


Answer: C

Which of the following is the last step in the four-step process to implementing CSR?

Which of the following is the last step in the four-step process to implementing CSR?



a. Create a social dimension to the value proposition.
b. Select the social issues to be addressed.
c. Create a corporate social agenda.
d. Identify points of intersection between the company and society.


Answer: A

Strategic CSR refers to corporate social responsibility activities that

Strategic CSR refers to corporate social responsibility activities that



a. will make maximum impact on the community.
b. are directly related to the business objectives of a company.
c. can be implemented in less than six months.
d. garner maximum publicity and appreciation for the company.


Answer: B

Which of the following best supports Milton Friedman's claim that the only social responsibility of business is to increase its profits?

Which of the following best supports Milton Friedman's claim that the only social responsibility of business is to increase its profits?



a. A recent survey has found that consumers are more willing to buy a product if part of its profits is used for charitable causes.
b. Among the 50 companies that shut down operations last year in the US, 35 invested heavily in CSR.
c. Dilo, the shoe-manufacturing company, faced less attrition ever since it starting involving its employees in community-volunteering programs.
d. The government has announced a 20% tax deduction for companies that are willing to reduce their carbon footprint by half.


Answer: B

Which of the following best describes corporate social responsiveness?

Which of the following best describes corporate social responsiveness?



a. It refers to how businesses should respond when society pressures them to do more.
b. It is the extent to which a government is willing to provide economic concessions to a company in return for the firm's willingness to engage in strategic CSR.
c. It is a measure of how much a society benefits from the corporate social responsibilities of a company.
d. It is a measure of how favorably people react to the CSR activities of a company.


Answer: A

Cadmia, a small island nation, recently revised its income-tax law. The new law sought to increase taxes on wealthy corporations and citizen with higher incomes. Surprisingly, everyone responded positively to the tax revision as they believed that it will decrease inequality in the nation. In this scenario, the people of Cadmia have demonstrated support for

Cadmia, a small island nation, recently revised its income-tax law. The new law sought to increase taxes on wealthy corporations and citizen with higher incomes. Surprisingly, everyone responded positively to the tax revision as they believed that it will decrease inequality in the nation. In this scenario, the people of Cadmia have demonstrated support for



a. retributive justice.
b. procedural justice.
c. distributive justice.
d. restorative justice.


Answer: C

Which of the following statements is true of Kantianism?

Which of the following statements is true of Kantianism?



a. It focuses purely on the positive and negative consequences of actions.
b. It holds the "greatest happiness principle" as the foundation to its ethical theory.
c. It suggests that people should use a cost-benefit analysis to select the option that best suits their own interests.
d. It assumes that motives are important when judging moral action.


Answer: D

Which of the following is a shortcoming of utilitarianism?

Which of the following is a shortcoming of utilitarianism?



a. It does not take into account the greatest good for the greatest number of people.
b. It assumes that people are only means to an end.
c. It leads to a tyranny of the majority and a failure to respect minorities.
d. It stresses that happiness and pleasure are not important in life.


Answer: C

Cindy was called in for interview at a women's fashion magazine for the post of editor. During the interview, the interviewer told Cindy that the work environment of the organization was very vibrant, and that although employees worked long hours, they also regularly enjoyed themselves at employer-sponsored dinner parties and weekend trips. In this case, the interviewer was telling Cindy about the _________ of the organization.

Cindy was called in for interview at a women's fashion magazine for the post of editor. During the interview, the interviewer told Cindy that the work environment of the organization was very vibrant, and that although employees worked long hours, they also regularly enjoyed themselves at employer-sponsored dinner parties and weekend trips. In this case, the interviewer was telling Cindy about the _________ of the organization.



a. task environment
b. structure
c. culture
d. general environment


Answer: C

After the corporate scandals of the early 2000s

After the corporate scandals of the early 2000s



a. companies began to diversify the composition of their boards.
b. companies began to outsource their operations to a greater degree.
c. the boards of firms became less independent.
d. organizational cultures became more individualistic and less collectivistic.


Answer: A

A firm's task environment includes

A firm's task environment includes



a. its competitors, suppliers, and customers.
b. its organizational culture and structure.
c. the demographic characteristics of its employee base.
d. those regulations and laws that govern its operations.


Answer: A

Fyllor Inc., a manufacturer of office equipment such as fax machines and printers, regularly imports component parts and then assembles them to make finished products. A recent increase in the import duty on component parts has led to an increase in the price of the firm's products, and this in turn has led to a drop in sales. In this scenario, the drop in sales for Fyllor Inc. can be attributed to its

Fyllor Inc., a manufacturer of office equipment such as fax machines and printers, regularly imports component parts and then assembles them to make finished products. A recent increase in the import duty on component parts has led to an increase in the price of the firm's products, and this in turn has led to a drop in sales. In this scenario, the drop in sales for Fyllor Inc. can be attributed to its



a. task environment.
b. conceptual environment.
c. general environment.
d. internal environment.


Answer: C

Among its three primary goals, the ASEAN was originally established to (check all that apply):

Among its three primary goals, the ASEAN was originally established to (check all that apply):



a. allow citizens of member nations to travel freely to other member nations without a passport.
b. aid nuclear power expansion in member nations.
c. promote social and cultural development among its member nations.
d. boycott the Western nations and establish political supremacy over them.


Answer: B, C

The most favored nation principle, agreed upon by GATT members, meant that

The most favored nation principle, agreed upon by GATT members, meant that 



a. foreign firms would be subject to the same rules and regulations as a country's domestic firms.
b. a country should extend the privileges of its citizens to tourists from other member nations.
c. a tariff rate granted to one member of GATT would be extended to all members.
d. trade disputes would be settled by the unanimous agreement of all parties to the dispute.


Answer: C

Sally is the manager of Grubb It, a fast-food outlet. She is looking out for trends or events that could turn out to be a problem for the outlet in the future. She believes that the outlet's close proximity to a school could pose a problem, owing to growing concern over childhood obesity. In this scenario, Sally is involved in

Sally is the manager of Grubb It, a fast-food outlet. She is looking out for trends or events that could turn out to be a problem for the outlet in the future. She believes that the outlet's close proximity to a school could pose a problem, owing to growing concern over childhood obesity. In this scenario, Sally is involved in



a. contingency planning.
b. environmental scanning.
c. a strategic review process.
d. stakeholder mapping.


Answer: B

Which of the following is the first step in organizing for stakeholder management?

Which of the following is the first step in organizing for stakeholder management?



a. Map all stakeholder relationships of the firm.
b. Determine stakes for each stakeholder.
c. Identify specific subsets within stakeholders.
d. Define connections between various stakeholders.


Answer: A

Which of the following was a reason for the decline of the shareholder view of management?

Which of the following was a reason for the decline of the shareholder view of management?



a. The relaxation of antitrust restrictions on mergers and acquisitions in the 1980s led to higher prices of raw materials.
b. The singular focus on shareholder value resulted in a lack of investment in new products and an erosion in quality standards.
c. Lack of attention to financial targets resulted in firms' assets and cash getting devalued in comparison to their stock prices.
d. The external and internal environments of firms were no longer complex, and this resulted in heavy investment in research and development.


Answer: B

According to Weber, which of the following is a feature of an ideal bureaucracy?

According to Weber, which of the following is a feature of an ideal bureaucracy?



a. A flat structural organization with few or no levels of separation between managers and their subordinates
b. Coordination is achieved through interpersonal communication and networking
c. Clear differentiation of tasks and responsibilities among individuals
d. The prevalence of information social relations at work


Answer: C

Nathan works at GoDrive Rentals, a car rental company. His job involves motivating and developing the company's sales teams as well as working with senior executives in developing and refining the company's marketing and sales strategies. From the given description, it can be concluded that Nathan is most likely a(n)

Nathan works at GoDrive Rentals, a car rental company. His job involves motivating and developing the company's sales teams as well as working with senior executives in developing and refining the company's marketing and sales strategies. From the given description, it can be concluded that Nathan is most likely a(n)



a. HR manager.
b. entry-level employee.
c. middle-level manager.
d. senior executive.


Answer: C

Which of the following actions is more likely to be taken by a manager rather than a leader?

Which of the following actions is more likely to be taken by a manager rather than a leader?



a. Working with a group of people to accomplish a desired goal in an efficient manner.
b. Striving for change and innovation through inspiration and motivation.
c. Setting direction for a firm and aligning people to focus on the organization's vision.
d. Defining the competitive landscape of an organization and setting strategic goals for the long term.


Answer: A

A firm's strategic choices and leadership approaches need to

A firm's strategic choices and leadership approaches need to



a. steer clear of cultural and socioeconomic influences.
b. be rigid and concrete to be effective.
c. adapt and change to retain their relevance.
d. be independent of each other.


Answer: C

What is Stakeholders engagement assessment matrix is used for?

What is Stakeholders engagement assessment matrix is used for?



A. To identify the gaps between Planned engagement level and Desired engagement level
B. To identify the gaps between Requested engagement level and Desired engagement level
C. To identify the gaps between Current engagement level and Desired engagement level
D. To identify the gaps between Current engagement level and Assured engagement level


Answer: C

How is Information Management System used to control stakeholder engagement?

How is Information Management System used to control stakeholder engagement?



A. It allows the project manager to store project information
B. It allows the project manager to consolidate reports
C. It allows the project manager to distribute reports to the stakeholders
D. All of the answers


Answer: D

What is an activity of the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?

What is an activity of the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?



A. Planning strategies for engaging stakeholders
B. Clarifying and resolving issues
C. Adjusting strategies for engaging stakeholders
D. Negotiating with the stakeholders"


Answer: C

Which process uses Work Performance Data as an input?

Which process uses Work Performance Data as an input?



A. Control Stakeholder Engagement
B. Plan Stakeholder Engagement
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Identify Stakeholders"


Answer: A

Who should be closely managed in stakeholder management?

Who should be closely managed in stakeholder management?



A. The stakeholders have Low power and High interest
B. The stakeholders have High power and Low interest
C. The stakeholders have High power and High interest
D. The stakeholders have Low power and Low interest"


Answer: C

Which statement is CORRECT about the engagement level of stakeholders?

Which statement is CORRECT about the engagement level of stakeholders?



A. The engagement level of stakeholders doesn't change through the project duration
B. The engagement level of stakeholders should be changed at each stage of project
C. The engagement level is the same for all stakeholders and at every stage of project
D. None of the answer"


Answer: B

"The Plan Risk Management process should begin and should be completed ."

"The Plan Risk Management process should begin and should be completed ."



A. When a project is conceived, early during project planning
B. Early during project planning, When a project is conceived
C. When a project is closed, early during requirement phase
D. Early in the morning, at night


Answer: A

You are performed to - Periodically review the risk management plan & risk register & adjust the documentation as required - Determine whether any changes or adjustments need to be made to what was planned based on information that becomes apparent once work begins."

You are performed to
- Periodically review the risk management plan & risk register & adjust the documentation as required
- Determine whether any changes or adjustments need to be made to what was planned based on information that becomes apparent once work begins."



A. Risk Reassessments
B. Risk Audits
C. Risk Control
D. Risk Inspections


Answer: A

"Risk Response Strategies sometimes called ."

"Risk Response Strategies sometimes called ."



A. Risk Mitigation Strategies
B. Risk Contingency Strategies
C. Risk Planning Strategies
D. Risk Reviewing Strategies


Answer: A

Which is output of Perform Quantitative risk analysis?

Which is output of Perform Quantitative risk analysis?



A. Watch List
B. Risks grouped by categories
C. Prioritized list of quantified risks
D. Plan risk responses


Answer: C

What is process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. The key benefit of this process is that it produces quantitative risk information to support decision making in order to reduce project uncertainly.

What is process of numerically analyzing the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives. The key benefit of this process is that it produces quantitative risk information to support decision making in order to reduce project uncertainly.



A. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
B. Perform Quantitative risk analysis
C. Identify risks
D. Risk register


Answer: B

"Quantitative risk analysis should be performed ."

"Quantitative risk analysis should be performed ."



A. Only on risks identified by the project manager
B. Only in extreme cases
C. Only on prioritized risks
D. On all risks"


Answer: C

What is not a change type?

What is not a change type?




A. Normal change
B. Emergency change
C. Standard change
D. Big change


Answer: D

FSOFT provides Call center service for customer, service time is 8:00 AM to 5:00 PM. In SLA, Response time is 1 hour and Resolution time is 4 hours. A user sends email to report an incident at 16:30 on Monday. On Tuesday morning, a Call center staff replies to the customer at 8:15 AM and resolves the incident at 12:00 PM. SLA of ticket is met or failed?"

FSOFT provides Call center service for customer, service time is 8:00 AM to 5:00 PM. In SLA, Response time is 1 hour and Resolution time is 4 hours. A user sends email to report an incident at 16:30 on Monday. On Tuesday morning, a Call center staff replies to the customer at 8:15 AM and resolves the incident at 12:00 PM. SLA of ticket is met or failed?"



A. Both Response Time and Resolution Time are failed targets in SLA
B. Both Response Time and Resolution Time are met targets in SLA
C. Response Time failed and Resolution Time is met targets in SLA
D. Response Time is met and Resolution Time failed targets in SLA


Answer: D

Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?

Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?




A. To ensure overall business risk is optimized
B. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluated
C. To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)
D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users


Answer: D

Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?

Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?



A. To provide information to users and customers
B. To update the service catalogue with service that may be requested through the service desk
C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D. To assist with general information, complaints or comments


Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?"

Which of the following is NOT an example of a Service Request?"




A. A user calls the Service Desk to ask how to work with a new application?
B. A user calls the Service Desk because they would like to change the functionality of an application
C. A Manager submits a request for a new employee to be given access to an application
D. A user wants to download a licensed copy of software from a list of approved options


Answer: B

FSOFT signs a contract with ABC company to support users and maintain an ERP system. When the CFO (Chef Finance Officer) of this company requires to change some functions in the Accounting module, what is the BEST solution for FSOFT's service team?

FSOFT signs a contract with ABC company to support users and maintain an ERP system. When the CFO (Chef Finance Officer) of this company requires to change some functions in the Accounting module, what is the BEST solution for FSOFT's service team?



A. Implement the required change as soon as possible because the CFO will approve the payment for FSOFT
B. Raise an RFC (request for change), assess and analyze risks and impacts, then require an official approval from authorized people before implementing the change
C. Require ECAB (Emergency change advisory board) to approve immediately
D. Request fulfilment process to handle this request


Answer: B

Which one of the following is the BEST description of service request?

Which one of the following is the BEST description of service request?



A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self - help web based interface
D. Any request for change that is low risk and which can be approved by the change manager without a change advisory board meeting


Answer: A

Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?

Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?



A. To automatically detect incidents occurred in the applications and infrastructures of the customer
B. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
C. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
D. Both B & C are correct


Answer: D

What is an RACI used for?

What is an RACI used for?



A. Performance analysis
B. Recording configuration items
C. Monitoring services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities


Answer: D

Which of the following BEST describes an Incident?

Which of the following BEST describes an Incident?



A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk , regardless of whether the service is impacted or not


Answer: B

Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?

Which of the following BEST describes a Problem?



A. The incident impacts many users
B. The same incident occurs many times
C. Both A & B are correct
D. Both A & B are not correct


Answer: C

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?

Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?



A. To prevent problems and resulting incidents from happening
B. To eliminate recurring incidents.
C. To restore service to a user
D. To minimize the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented


Answer: C

Subscribe to: Posts (Atom)